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Okay so dh and I have been looking for a house. He found of from a friend of a friend of a friend that someone's brother just "bought" a house and unfortunately the guy and his fiancee have called it quits and he's willing to rent it out.
It meets all of our criteria and he's not asking for 1st or last months rent. We could move in today if we wanted.
Sounds to good to be true to me. We're going to take a look at the house Saturday.
I found some information about the house, owners, property taxes and everything online. According to the papers the house has been in the guy's name since 6/18/2010.
Does that mean he owns the home? If he didn't and was paying off a mortgage wouldn't still be in the banks name? Dh wants to just jump. Am I wrong for wanting something legal and binding ( a rental agreement) drawn up beforehand?
Because we'd be doing this without agents and everything, will getting any paperwork notarized make it binding in the court of law. I want to cover all my bases.
Any advice ladies? It would be greatly appreciated.
Answer by m-avi at 6:24 PM on Jun. 13, 2012
Answer by aeneva at 9:20 PM on Jun. 13, 2012
Answer by meooma at 8:49 PM on Jun. 13, 2012
Answer by wendythewriter at 7:47 PM on Jun. 13, 2012
Answer by Mom-2-3-Girlz at 6:54 PM on Jun. 13, 2012
Answer by ohwrite at 6:50 PM on Jun. 13, 2012
Answer by SWasson at 6:44 PM on Jun. 13, 2012
Answer by Melbornj at 6:39 PM on Jun. 13, 2012
Does his mortgage company have any stipulations on the house... some mortgages specifically say that it has to be the owner primary residence. Not sure how that might effect you all...
Answer by Crafty26 at 6:38 PM on Jun. 13, 2012
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