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Please don't take this question as a cut on your beliefs in any way, it's just sheer curiosity.
I know that the command to circumcise your sons is meant to "mark" Jewish men as separate from non-Jewish men. However, I'm wondering why, in a society where the majority of men are circumcised, do the Jews continue to practice this, as it no longer sets Jewish men apart, instead, it makes them a part of the larger group... Is it simply practiced because it's the commandment and since it was never taken back you continue to follow it? Or is it out of tradition? Or something else. And is it possible for a man who is not circumcised to be accepted as a Jewish man? If not, how will the new laws (in countries like Germany, not here yet) affect the Jewish community?
Okay, so that was a lot of questions, but it's something that's been weighing on my mind lately...
Answer by feralxat at 11:45 AM on Jul. 13, 2012
Answer by momto2boys973 at 8:31 PM on Jul. 13, 2012
Being circumcised is not a 'mark' to separate between Jews/non-Jews. It is a covenant between man and God that is still practiced today (along with the rest of the commandments). Sources: (Genesis 17:10-14 and Leviticus 12:3).
Circumcision is commonly perceived as hygienic; however biblical text states the reason clearly: It is an outward physical sign of the eternal covenant between God and the Jewish people. If a father doesn't have his son circumcised, the son has to do it on adulthood. A person who is uncircumcised suffers spiritual excision; in other words, he has no place in the World to Come. This does not apply to anyone who is not Jewish.
As for Germany: They will most likely have to leave the country to have the procedure done.
Answer by collectivecow at 9:48 PM on Jul. 28, 2012
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