Okay so if my husband finished in me one week before I'm supposed to get my period, & if I were pregnant would it already come out on a pregnancy test already or no? & I wouldn't get my period that month for sure right ? Or would I have it one last time?Answer Question
Asked by Anonymous at 8:21 AM on Dec. 20, 2012 in Trying to Conceive
Answer by But_Mommie at 8:59 AM on Dec. 20, 2012
Answer by Alisim at 9:35 AM on Dec. 20, 2012
Answer by futurebabykar at 9:52 AM on Dec. 20, 2012
Depends entirely on when you ovulated. One week before your cycle, assuming your cycle is 28 days is too close to your period to get pregnant in most cases. You would normally calculate how long your cycle is (example 28 day cycle) and then break that in half (14 days). So, count from the first day of your period, that 14 days and that's the average date of ovulation. If you were wanting to get pregnant then you would want to have intercourse with your partner anywhere from 3 days before to one to two days after ovulation.
Now, those are just examples of the average timing from what I have researched. Worked for me both times, however not all women have a regular cycle to count from.
OH, and test once your period is actually late.
Answer by QuinnMae at 10:14 AM on Dec. 20, 2012
Answer by QuinnMae at 11:08 AM on Dec. 20, 2012