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Why do doctors do this?

6yo DD started wetting the bed back in November. I took her to the doctor. She pee'd in a cup and they tested it. Totally clean. He said she could have caught some sort of virus when we were in Florida earlier that month and said to give it another couple of weeks.

Fast forward two months and she is still wetting the bed. Took her to the doctor and they had her pee in a cup again. Came back with a very slight elevation of something that would indicate a UTI if it were significantly more elevated. They want to see if it "grows"...if it does, it is a UTI; if it doesn't, they want to put her on something like DDAVP (I probably have that wrong) for like six months).

Why are they even paying attention to this SLIGHT elevation of whatever that is in her urine now when it wasn't there two months ago when it was tested and she was wetting the bed? The slight elevation is a NEW THING...the wetting the bed is an OLD THING.

Maybe I just don't understand how these things work, but this just doesn't make sense to me. I'm kind of viewing it as though your finger hurts...you don't know why, you go to doctor and doctor does whatever.......little while later you go back because it's still hurting and doctor notices there is a cut that you just got in the waiting room 10 minutes prior and says it's because of that, but yet the the cut wasn't there originally, know what I mean?

Anyone able to shed some light on the subject?

 
AllAboutKeeley

Asked by AllAboutKeeley at 11:17 AM on Jan. 17, 2013 in Health

Level 33 (59,874 Credits)
This question is closed.
Answers (7)
  • It's possible that slight elevation existed during the first test, but was so slight that it didn't even register. So it went from unnoticeably slight to noticeably slight and could continue to grow. That's why they're watching this slight elevation, even though it seems to have not existed before.

    Think of it as how you can be contagious with a cold before you start actually sneezing and coughing and realize that you have the cold. The bedwetting could have been an early symptom before any other symptoms that could be tracked to a specific cause appeared.
    wendythewriter

    Answer by wendythewriter at 1:01 PM on Jan. 17, 2013

  • they need to check on everything they see. The slight thing they saw could become something serious.
    LostSoul88

    Answer by LostSoul88 at 11:31 AM on Jan. 17, 2013

  • I get that...but if that slight something was not there when she was wetting the bed before, why say that the slight something is the reason for it?

    That's what I don't get.
    AllAboutKeeley

    Comment by AllAboutKeeley (original poster) at 11:35 AM on Jan. 17, 2013

  • Was it protein in the urine?
    mommy_jules

    Answer by mommy_jules at 11:37 AM on Jan. 17, 2013

  • oh I must have over read that part.
    Try getting a 2nd opinion.
    LostSoul88

    Answer by LostSoul88 at 11:37 AM on Jan. 17, 2013

  • He might think the UTI is a symptom of a urinary tract abnormality and may explain why she is wetting the bed at night. My SIL has a duplicate kidney and reflux which caused her to have recurrent UTIs. She saw a children's urologist growing and she had take some medication (not sure what it was) for awhile.
    mommy_jules

    Answer by mommy_jules at 11:55 AM on Jan. 17, 2013

  • you should try a urologist, they will check to see if her uretha tube is opened all the way. Mine was to narrow so I never emptied my bladder. Doc did an in office procedure no pain that I remember and no more wet bed. Orit could be that she doesnt know shes doing it until its too late. It could be anything, and remember a doctors office is called a medical PRACTICE, they do not know everything.
    luvmygrandbaby

    Answer by luvmygrandbaby at 12:32 PM on Jan. 17, 2013

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