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2 Bumps

Controversial Rape Topic: For serious debate please no flamming. adult content

Often the topic of serious debate is the fact of whether or not a man can be raped or sexually assaulted by a woman. The argument states that on one side, arousal is consent. The other side is that an erection is a physical, sometimes uncontrollable, reaction to stimulation. So I pose two questions that seem logical that you can debate or leave your thoughts on.

1. Assuming that a woman can and does over power a man, and she forces him into sexual penetration despite his very vocal refusal even though his physical response results in erection, can this still be termed as rape?

2. A grown man, however the situation occurs, finds himself being fondled by a girl who is underage (say 12 to 17), maybe he was asleep or she was sitting beside him and takes the initiative to engage him. Though he pushes her off, tells her no, says this is inappropriate and she does stop, so no further sexual act is preformed, but the initial fondling (even if only through his pants) results in an erection, does this mean that he is a pedophile? Do you feel that it was the underage girl that aroused him or the fact that his genitalia was being stimulated? Could or should he be at fault over this? Should he be held accountable (remember nothing further happened, he told her to stop and she does, but he was still aroused). This is totally hypothetical and I don't know of any real case of this happening. I am sure that it probably has at some point but I am unaware of it actually happening.

I thought of these two scenarios after watching an episode of Law and Order : SVU.

The floor is open for debate.


Asked by AnonNdrag at 8:32 PM on Mar. 25, 2013 in Politics & Current Events

Level 19 (7,783 Credits)
This question is closed.
Answers (14)
  • I agree with the PP's in both cases. Yes, that is rape. IF arousal was all it would take for consent then some women who were raped wouldn't be able to press charges. There are cases of women becoming aroused during a rape as well.

    No, he isn't a pedophile. He didn't even know who was messing with him till he woke up. He just had hands on his penis and got happy.

    Answer by kmath at 8:46 PM on Mar. 25, 2013

  • 1. Yes. Think if a woman somehow slips her victim a boner pill (drug name escapes me right now), he may not be in control of his erection and it is an involuntary reaction, and I would think she could be charged with more than just rape in a case like this.

    2. No, he is not a pedophile as he did not engage in any kind of sexual contact with her. He did not give approval or consent. This of course would be a much harder case to prove and it is possible that if the girl said he victimized her then he possibly could be charged and convicted. Say she notices some kind of mole or mark that would identify him specifically and then went to the police saying he tried to rape her and then gave a description of his markings or that are specific to him.

    Answer by QuinnMae at 8:41 PM on Mar. 25, 2013

  • 1)Yes- it was forced penetration and there fore rape.
    2)No- he can not help his bodies natural response to stimuli. Even a corpse can become erect if touched shortly after death- and I assure you the corpse had no intentions. The person in the scenario did the right thing by ending it before anything further happened.

    Answer by Anonymous at 8:40 PM on Mar. 25, 2013

  • Viagra!

    Answer by QuinnMae at 8:46 PM on Mar. 25, 2013

  • 1. If he is being held against his will, or being threatened to have sex, than yes it's rape

    2. He's the adult in this situation. He can stop anything from happening. If a child did this, than they've probably already been sexually abused and in need of help.

    Answer by RyansMom001 at 8:52 PM on Mar. 25, 2013

  • Yes, the first is rape. No question about it, rape.

    No, the second scenario would not make him a pedophile. It was a physical reaction to physical stimulation.

    Answer by DusterMommy at 8:53 PM on Mar. 25, 2013

  • 1. It is rape
    2.No. Their was so sex involved. Most mens dicks get hard just by thinking of something.

    Answer by louise2 at 9:41 PM on Mar. 25, 2013

  • Yes it is rape. There are many proven cases where the woman has power over the man and uses it to force sex.... Rape does not have to be violent for it to be rape....any thing non consenual qualifies
    And no in second case. Arousal is just a bodily and chemical reaction to stimuli. If i feel aroused at the site of some young, hot UPS man who delivers a package to me, have I committed adultry?

    Answer by Nimue930 at 3:52 PM on Mar. 26, 2013

  • The scenario you describe is pretty scary for a lot of men. I've known a couple who definitely weren't predators or anything, but who wouldn't let the neighbor kids in their houses without one of the parents just because it would be extremely hard to prove their innocence if there were ever any accusations made.

    Answer by Ballad at 9:01 PM on Mar. 25, 2013

  • 1. yes, it's rape
    2. No.

    Answer by charlotsomtimes at 11:23 PM on Mar. 25, 2013