In a nutshell, a lesbian woman with children has been ordered by a Texas court to move out of the home that she shares with her partner of three years. The biological father is involved but I'm not clear on whether he brought the case to court or some other circumstance did.
The thing I find interesting is that the judge who has given her 30 days to move out of her home placed the Morality Clause in the divorce decree himself in 2011. It was not in the original decree, nor was the woman in question notified that this had occurred.
And it's perfectly legal. The judge states, without hesitation, that he did so because he disapproves of "her lifestyle"
My questions are these: Is there a place for morality clauses in divorce decrees in this century? If there are, can this stipulation be applied across the board and fairly (including heterosexual couples who live together without benefit of marriage) and, second, would you consider a judge taking this unilateral action to be an "activist" judge?Answer Question
Answer by NotPanicking at 12:42 PM on May. 18, 2013
Answer by 3libras at 1:06 PM on May. 18, 2013
Answer by Ballad at 3:08 PM on May. 18, 2013
Answer by kmath at 3:51 PM on May. 18, 2013
Answer by wendythewriter at 3:56 PM on May. 18, 2013
This is absolutely wrong. How is this legal? Can she get another judge to over rule this?
Answer by musicmaker at 2:47 AM on May. 19, 2013
Answer by NotPanicking at 9:23 PM on May. 19, 2013
Answer by Dardenella at 11:42 PM on May. 19, 2013