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I need some help with this one.....Court refuses to expand minority voting rights

WTH...I read this article twice...
http://www.msnbc.msn.com/id/29600184/

And am still confused.
"The 5-4 decision, with the court's conservatives in the majority, came in the case of a North Carolina plan that sought to preserve the influence of African-American voters even though they made up just 39 percent of the population in a state legislative district.


Although not a majority, the black voters were numerous enough to effectively determine the outcome of elections, the state argued in urging the court to extend the civil rights law's provision to the district."

Does this try and make the black vote there carry more weight per person?

It also says....
"the Voting Rights Act applies only to districts with a numerical majority of minority voters."

Well wouldn't that make them no longer minorities if they are in the majority?

 
momof030404

Asked by momof030404 at 11:02 PM on Mar. 9, 2009 in Politics & Current Events

Level 23 (16,925 Credits)
This question is closed.
Answers (4)
  • I'm gathering this law makes it easier for "minority groups" to get their candidates elected. It was signed in 1965. The Supreme Court ruled that it only took effect if the minority groups were 50% or greater. . .which makes sense, I guess since no one group should have any more effect than others. I think it has to do with where they draw the boundaries for reps in Congress- they would group it together to be more friendly to the minority groups if they are large. I could be way wrong tho.

    It is confusing though, and I looked it up in several other articles, and didn't see a better explanation.
    lovinangels

    Answer by lovinangels at 11:19 PM on Mar. 9, 2009

  • LOL...thanks lovin' I looked it up too and couldn't find a better explanation but I would REALLY like one. I don't think I am liking this law in these times.
    momof030404

    Answer by momof030404 at 11:29 PM on Mar. 9, 2009

  • from the sounds of it, it sounds fishy.... are you saying their vote counts more then the next? everyone has the ability to vote, weither they use it or not is there choice.....
    JuLiAnSmOmMy317

    Answer by JuLiAnSmOmMy317 at 12:54 AM on Mar. 10, 2009

  • Well it was written in 65- It makes sense that it doesn't seem fitting in this day and age. I'm not a big fan, either, but I am under-educated on this one. . .
    lovinangels

    Answer by lovinangels at 1:05 AM on Mar. 10, 2009

Answers / Debate / Politics & Current Events