WTH...I read this article twice...
http://www.msnbc.msn.com/id/29600184/
And am still confused.
"The 5-4 decision, with the court's conservatives in the majority, came in the case of a North Carolina plan that sought to preserve the influence of African-American voters even though they made up just 39 percent of the population in a state legislative district.
Although not a majority, the black voters were numerous enough to effectively determine the outcome of elections, the state argued in urging the court to extend the civil rights law's provision to the district."
Does this try and make the black vote there carry more weight per person?
It also says....
"the Voting Rights Act applies only to districts with a numerical majority of minority voters."
Well wouldn't that make them no longer minorities if they are in the majority?
Asked by momof030404 at 11:02 PM on Mar. 9, 2009 in Politics & Current Events
Level 23 (16,925 Credits)Answer by lovinangels at 11:19 PM on Mar. 9, 2009
LOL...thanks lovin' I looked it up too and couldn't find a better explanation but I would REALLY like one. I don't think I am liking this law in these times.
Answer by momof030404 at 11:29 PM on Mar. 9, 2009
Answer by JuLiAnSmOmMy317 at 12:54 AM on Mar. 10, 2009
Answer by lovinangels at 1:05 AM on Mar. 10, 2009
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