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Paul's writings?

It seems that nearly half of the New Testament is composed of letters from the apostle Paul to young churches (Corinthians, Galatians, etc.) or to fellow evangelists, (Timothy, Titus, Philemon, etc) From his writings it seems apparent that he was dogmatic and legalistic, concerned only with the LAW of being Christian, not the love of Jesus, and a gynephobic at best. Given these facts, WHY were so many of his writings included by the Canon of 397 A.D. that decided which books to put in the official Bible?

 
Anonymous

Asked by Anonymous at 10:26 AM on May. 6, 2009 in Religion & Beliefs

This question is closed.
Answers (16)
  • Yaaay!!!!! I have made my daily quota of offended christians and then some!!! SOOO happy!!! I don't research "meanings" for the scriptures because they are usually the opinions of the people doing the interpreting and can be made to say anything--I take them as they are word for word. Either the bible means what it says or it's a load of crap (as you all know, I'm voting for the latter!). There are witnesses to Paul's visitation with Jesus on the road and they thought he was having a fit of some kind. IMO, Paul was a heretic, a liar, and a mysogynist and he set Jesus' purpose on a totally different course than was intended. And anon. 2:22, take up your complaint with the History Channel. I got the info on the Nicean Council from them! There is a rather large list of books--that the christians themselves read--that were excluded from the bible at that time and the program listed quite a few of them.
    witchqueen

    Answer by witchqueen at 6:45 PM on May. 6, 2009

  • Without legalism there is no dogma.
    isabellalecour

    Answer by isabellalecour at 11:09 AM on May. 6, 2009

  • This question tells me you really do not understand Paul's writings.
    He wrote from the view of GRACE not LAW.
    OT is more legilistic by a greater amount for there was not room for anything.
    Grace gives you room and Love helps you grow and that is what NT is about.
    Shaneagle777

    Answer by Shaneagle777 at 11:19 AM on May. 6, 2009

  • Because the council was interested in helping establish authority through religious texts. The laws were their primary concern.

    nysa00

    Answer by nysa00 at 11:33 AM on May. 6, 2009

  • For the reason you just stated in your question. It was the LAWS that created/formed the church.
    jenettyshome

    Answer by jenettyshome at 11:35 AM on May. 6, 2009

  • What you are saying is not true. He was a legalistic Jew a pharisee before he converted. After he converted, he warned people to not be legalistic.

    There is a difference from pursuing holiness through a relationship with God and being legalistic. Paul taught us about the fruit of the Spirit. You should read Galatians and Romans.
    Anonymous

    Answer by Anonymous at 11:45 AM on May. 6, 2009

  • "Because the council was interested in helping establish authority through religious texts. The laws were their primary concern."


    This is not true. God establishes the authority of the scriptures. Paul was concerned with false doctrine though. There were a lot of false teachers, some of them were legalistic!!! He faught against false doctrine.

    Anonymous

    Answer by Anonymous at 11:48 AM on May. 6, 2009

  • agreed with anon 11:45
    momofsaee

    Answer by momofsaee at 12:10 PM on May. 6, 2009

  • Answered at 11:48 AM on May. 6, 2009 by: Anonymous "Because the council was interested in helping establish authority through religious texts. The laws were their primary concern."


    This is not true. God establishes the authority of the scriptures. Paul was concerned with false doctrine though. There were a lot of false teachers, some of them were legalistic!!! He faught against false doctrine.


    Wherever you think the authority comes from personally & whatever Paul thought, the empire was concerned with regulating people through religious doctrine. The point of the council was setting up law. That is why those particular writings of Paul's were favored.

    nysa00

    Answer by nysa00 at 12:32 PM on May. 6, 2009

  • Probably because the memebers of the Council of Nicea, which put the bible together, were male and concerned with keeping their power over civilization and over women in particular--something Paul was also eager to do. Like him, they wished to keep women silent in church matters and children obedient and in constant fear, rather than including them in their patriarchal religion as equal human beings and partners. If someone like Paul were to make claims of having had a vision of Jesus and started spouting his hateful and contradictory "message" from Jesus, we would probably have him put away in an asylum. Or he would go up in smoke like the Branch Davidians did.
    witchqueen

    Answer by witchqueen at 12:39 PM on May. 6, 2009