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Bible conflictions I'm unsure about...

Okay, so whenever I ask someone about their religious stance on Gay marriage, they often quote the bible with Leviticus 18:22. Acceptable, however it also says it is a sin, in the same chapter (v. 19) that having sex with a woman on her period is also a sin, and in Lev. 17:13 it proclaims eating the blood of any animal is also a sin, meaning any meat cooked other than well done. Since sin is the same in Gods eyes, being gay and having sex with your husband on your period are equal in evil. There are several other examples of things Christians shouldn't do according to Leviticus, but do anyways,throughout the chapter.

Now from what I've understood, when Christ came all you needed to do to be accepted into heaven was: Admit that you are a sinner, Believe that Jesus is God's son, Confess your sins and have God as your savior.

More explained below--c--

Answer Question

Asked by gabrielle_x at 10:36 PM on May. 28, 2009 in Religion & Beliefs

Level 13 (957 Credits)
Answers (44)
  • Here are some verses in NT - 1 Cor. 6:9 Don’t you realize that those who do wrong will not inherit the Kingdom of God? Don’t fool yourselves. Those who indulge in sexual sin, or who worship idols, or commit adultery, or are male prostitutes, or practice homosexuality

    1 Tim. 1:10
    The law is for people who are sexually immoral, or who practice homosexuality, or are slave traders, liars, promise breakers, or who do anything else that contradicts the wholesome teaching


    Answer by bonn777 at 10:41 PM on May. 28, 2009

  • By this understanding and logic, that's why it is allowed to eat rare meat, rabbit, have sex with your husband on your period, and other things forbidden in Leviticus; because when Jesus came the Old Testament was voided.

    However, by that logic wouldn't the 10 commandment also be voided? We can't pick and choose what we choose to believe and what we voided..the entire Old Testament was those 10 laws shouldn't be any more..they're irrelevant to Christ's love.

    Further onto this, if we chose to believe everything in the Old testament, all of the things in Leviticus Christians do on a daily basis, are hell worthy.

    Further more, in the New testament, Romans 1 26-27, it is said that the gay men were seen as disgusting, but it was not said it was a sin. In Corinthians it says: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders will inherit the kingdom of God,--c--

    Answer by gabrielle_x at 10:42 PM on May. 28, 2009

  • However, the verse in Corinthians was written by Paul to the Corinthian Greeks, long after the Death of Jesus.

    Jesus himself never said anything derogatory towards homosexuality.

    In Timothy it's also supposedly "stated", as :For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;
    The book of Timothy was written as a letter from Paul to Timothy regarding what he should preach to others.

    Now Paul was a righteous man, but he did not know Jesus unlike the other Apostles. Paul is the only man in the New Testament who calls homosexuality a sin, but he never heard Christ's words on it. He got his assumptions about it from what he learned in Old Testament scriptures.

    But, again, the Old testament is voided with the Death of Jesus Christ..

    So where does that leave homosexuality?

    Answer by gabrielle_x at 10:50 PM on May. 28, 2009

  • I posted scripture in NT regarding homosexuality being a sin. No, the 10 commandments are not voided. Jesus said He came to fulfill the law.

    Mt. 5:17 17 “Do not think that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill.

    Mt. 22:37 Jesus replied, “‘You must love the Lord your God with all your heart, all your soul, and all your mind.’[c] 38 This is the first and greatest commandment. 39 A second is equally important: ‘Love your neighbor as yourself.’[d] 40 The entire law and all the demands of the prophets are based on these two commandments.”

    The passage in Leviticus ... for me to completely explain it would require alot more time and space.

    Answer by bonn777 at 10:51 PM on May. 28, 2009

  • Well I'm here!

    "The entire law and all the demands of the prophets are based on these two commandments.” Isn't that saying that the only two Commandments carried over from the OT to the NT are those two? Meaning other than those two commandments, the Old Testament is voided.

    Answer by gabrielle_x at 10:53 PM on May. 28, 2009

  • The entire scripture even that which was written by Paul is the inspired word of God. Where does that leave homosexuality? Homosexuality is a sin. We are all born sinners.. Adam and Eve sinned and therefore we were all born sinners.. some have a disposition to sin of fornication, lying, gossiping, etc. and for those who are homosexual, that is the one that is there disposition.. and just like any other sin it can be forgiven.

    Answer by bonn777 at 10:54 PM on May. 28, 2009

  • O.K. Jesus never abolished the Old Testament. People assume that He did.

    Matthew 5:17-18 (New International Version) The Fulfillment of the Law 17"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. 18I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished

    As to your statement that we are hell worthy as Christians, yes we are.  If  my salvation depended on my behavior then I would have no hope.  My righteousness comes through Christ and Christ alone.  He is the only one to have ever lived a perfect sinless life.

    Romans 5:16-18 (New International Version)


    Answer by teamquinn at 11:00 PM on May. 28, 2009

  • But where has it ever been said that homosexuality was a sin in God's eyes?

    Yes, he created one man and one woman in the beginning in the Garden of Eden, but he created them to procreate. All that says is that male and female= baby, not man+man=wrong. If a woman is sterile, does that mean she shouldn't have a husband?

    Paul didn't know what the inspired Word of God was..Aside from Damascus, he'd never spoken directly to God until his exile. Again, his "Inspired word of God ," was the Old Testament.

    Answer by gabrielle_x at 11:01 PM on May. 28, 2009

  • "to your statement that we are hell worthy as Christians, yes we are."

    Then you consider a person who eats meat exclusively committing a sin worth hell?

    Answer by gabrielle_x at 11:03 PM on May. 28, 2009

  • This is a very interesting question that I am excited to see the answers for. :]

    Answer by Anonymous at 11:07 PM on May. 28, 2009

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