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Just a poll

Without giving names. other than 1 and 2. heres a scenareo. If a vehicle is in name 1. but name 2 makes the payments. in a verbal agreement that when the vehicle is paid off, name 2 gets it. who has the final say of who is and isnt allowed in the vehicle and what the vehicle is to be used for?

If you could, please send me your feelings about this, would love to hear it. thanks!

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Asked by babyslove23 at 3:59 AM on Oct. 20, 2009 in Entertainment

Level 1 (0 Credits)
Answers (7)
  • Honestly, it doesn't matter what their verbal agreement is. The person who is legally on the title gets the say. I'm saying this not just because it's legally their possession, but because legally they are responsible for whatever happens in that car, and are legally responsible to whoever it happens to - whether they were a passenger in the car, or injured by the person in the car.

    So like, say, I have good credit so I'm helping a friend out and put my name on the car, but she's making payments, and once it's paid off, I'm signing the title over to her, and she's using the car, because, for all practical purposes, it's hers, but she gets in an accident, then they don't sue her - they sue ME, because I'm the owner. They can also sue her, but I would be the primary person responsible.


    Answer by sailorwifenmom at 5:26 AM on Oct. 20, 2009

  • cont

    Also, say, if the person that was making the payments was, say, one of my teenagers, then that makes me even more liable legally for any lawsuits, canceled insurance, etc. I know that in a lot of states, this is why a car cannot be titled in a minor's name, unless they have been emancipated. It HAS to be in the parent's name, because, while a minor can be charged in a criminal case, you can't sue them. (Again, if they aren't emancipated.) So, say a teen is speeding and hits someone, or gets drunk and hits someone in a car their parents are on the title for - the teen can go to jail, and the parents can lose everything in civil suits.

    So honestly, yes, if your name is the one on the title, then, even if they're making payments, as long as your name is on the title, you make the rules.

    Answer by sailorwifenmom at 5:30 AM on Oct. 20, 2009

  • Name 2 sound have not agreed with this. Name 2 should have car in thier name when making payments on it.

    Answer by mommorgan at 7:39 AM on Oct. 20, 2009

  • who is and isn't allowed in the vehicle? what the car should be used for ?
    wth is all of this, a battle of the control freaks?
    if number 2 is dumb enough to make payments on a car they don't legally own, then i say they deserve anything number 1 wants to do to them just for a learning experience.

    Answer by jewjewbee at 9:58 AM on Oct. 20, 2009

  • Name 1 is the owner legally no matter who made the payments. It's a lose lose deal for name 2. Ideally the person who made the payments should be the one to say what it would be used for but it's not their name on the title and that will come back to bite name 2 in the end.

    Answer by Anonymous at 4:04 PM on Oct. 20, 2009

  • a verbal agreement doesn't matter for anything unless 2's name is on the vehicle. if 1 doesn't add 2's name to the title, 2 has no legal standing

    Answer by Butterflysky_24 at 4:23 PM on Oct. 20, 2009

  • You said that when number 2 pays off the car than he gets it . Than you should give it to #2. You gave #2 your word. #2 can sue for the money back.

    Answer by gammie at 8:10 PM on Oct. 20, 2009

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