does this commandment have conditions or special reasons attached to it that make it permissible for someone to kill? does the bible address this?Answer Question
Asked by Anonymous at 7:52 PM on Nov. 13, 2009 in Religion & Beliefs
Answer by janet116 at 8:48 PM on Nov. 13, 2009
Answer by Anonymous at 8:51 PM on Nov. 13, 2009
Answer by teamquinn at 9:22 PM on Nov. 13, 2009
Sure it does!
Moses murdered a man, and years later enforced the 10 commandments.
The word "kill" is so loosely implies that I would have to say that the translation is wrong. Then again, so many things in the bible that "God" said ppl should not do, those of faith do everyday.
Answer by sugahmamma at 10:37 PM on Nov. 13, 2009
Answer by NovemberLove at 10:56 PM on Nov. 13, 2009
Answer by rhanford at 11:26 PM on Nov. 13, 2009
Answer by ilovemyboys21 at 11:29 PM on Nov. 13, 2009
Answer by OneToughMami at 5:34 AM on Nov. 14, 2009
The ten commandments section does not have subcategories spelling out legal loopholes. So the rules written there do not have any conditions attached to it. However, if you take the Bible as a whole you will find many cases where a man (or God) is portrayed as righteous in their acts of violence & murder. So it would appear that Jehovah did allow some loopholes, though these were given through anecdotal evidence rather than spelled out. One should keep in mind though that in the Bible some killings are condoned that would not come anywhere near cutting the mustard for being considered allowable today. So that has to be taken into consideration when trying to find Biblical evidence for loopholes to the 10 commandments.
Answer by nysa00 at 9:58 AM on Nov. 14, 2009
Answer by witchqueen at 12:24 PM on Nov. 14, 2009
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