I was reading about the history of the English language Christian Bible. In 1611, the King James version was printed with 80 books (NT and OT which included the Apocrypha), as did all the privious translations but in 1885 the Apocrypha was removed from the KJV leaving it with only 66 books. My question: Why? Why was the Apocrypha removed?Answer Question
I have always heard that the KJV is the best because it was divinely guided in its translation..if so, where did human hands/minds interfere -- with the inclusion of the Apocrypha or with its removal? TY
Answer by Amlimommy at 6:33 PM on Dec. 5, 2009
I'm not the best one to answer, but I know the bible was put together by the catholic church during a Council (I forget which). They chose the books/manuscripts which they considered to be authentic. They included Tobit and Macabees, which Martin Luther later removed. As for Apocrypha, that is where catholics and orthodox get alot of their traditions concerning Mary. But it's considered more literary, less narrative. But I'm not absolutely sure.
Answer by shellbyrne at 6:37 PM on Dec. 5, 2009
Answer by teamquinn at 7:26 PM on Dec. 5, 2009
Answer by SabrinaMBowen at 7:50 PM on Dec. 5, 2009
Thank you Sabrina for the info!
Teamquinn, do you use the KJV/NKJV? Are you one who believes that the Bible as it is today is the literal, inerrant word of God? How do you explain a divine leading of the compilation of the Bible to have included inaccurate books? Maybe one they left out held more accurate information and is now lost to Christians today?
Answer by Amlimommy at 7:59 PM on Dec. 5, 2009
Answer by CosyMama at 10:02 AM on Dec. 6, 2009
Answer by Anonymous at 2:02 PM on Dec. 6, 2009
It wasn't the Coucil of Nicea that determined which books would be included in the bible - it was a pretty long process but it was the Council of Rome in 382 CE that first decided upon a canon of 46 Old Testament books and 27 in the New Testament. This decision was ratified by the councils at Hippo (393), Carthage (397, 419), II Nicea (787), Florence (1442), and Trent (1546).
The appocraphal books were found to be historically and theologically inaccurate. They have many conflicts within themselves and the rest of the books of the Bible.
No, not at all. As I pointed out Jesus, the apostles and the early Christians used these books as Scripture. The NT even makes numerous allusions to the deuterocanonical books. Like in Hebrews 11:35: "Women received their dead by resurrection. Some were tortured, refusing to accept release that they might rise again to a better life." This story can't be found in the Protestant OT can this story be found - but it's in the Catholic bible 2 Maccabees 7.
Answer by eringobrough at 2:15 PM on Dec. 6, 2009
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