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The Bible

Do you believe that the modern translations of the Bible are the same as the oldest known manuscripts?

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Asked by Anonymous at 9:09 AM on May. 11, 2010 in Religion & Beliefs

Answers (16)
  • Nope. There are words in Hebrew that don't exist in English. I also don't believe in any of the religions that believe in the bible.

    Answer by Nyx7 at 9:13 AM on May. 11, 2010

  • No, but I believe that God is the same great God.

    Answer by acurran88 at 9:15 AM on May. 11, 2010

  • No they aren't. God's word may be in there, but so are man's words. while I can be "inspired" by something to paint a picture, it is still my concept and ideas of what I think. Just because the bible was "inspired" by a god doesn't mean the author didn't add in his thoughts and interpretations.

    Answer by 2autisticsmom at 9:19 AM on May. 11, 2010

  • Churchmen have been tampering with the bible for centuries. I would be surprised if there is even 1/4 of the book that is the same as the original texts.

    Answer by witchqueen at 11:41 AM on May. 11, 2010

  • Mythology is mythology is mythology...

    Answer by MamaK88 at 1:16 PM on May. 11, 2010

  • One example is the Hebrew word Sheol translated into Hell, There is no English word that conveys the precise sense of the Hebrew word she’ohl′. Commenting on the use of the word “hell” in Bible translation, Collier’s Encyclopedia (1986, Vol. 12, p. 28) says: “Since Sheol in Old Testament times referred simply to the abode of the dead and suggested no moral distinctions, the word ‘hell,’ as understood today, is not a happy translation.” More recent versions transliterate the word into English as “Sheol.”—RS, AT, NW.


    Answer by lisarose45 at 2:03 PM on May. 11, 2010

  • Regarding Sheol, the Encyclopaedia Britannica (1971, Vol. 11, p. 276) noted: “Sheol was located somewhere ‘under’ the earth. . . . The state of the dead was one of neither pain nor pleasure. Neither reward for the righteous nor punishment for the wicked was associated with Sheol. The good and the bad alike, tyrants and saints, kings and orphans, Israelites and gentiles—all slept together without awareness of one another.”

    So why did they use a word that doesn't have the same meaning? because it's a belief that came from other religions and was mixed in by those taking from other religious beliefs.

    Answer by lisarose45 at 2:06 PM on May. 11, 2010

  • While the Greek teaching of the immortality of the human soul infiltrated Jewish religious thinking in later centuries, the Bible record shows that Sheol refers to mankind’s common grave as a place where there is no consciousness. (Ec 9:4-6, 10) Those in Sheol neither praise God nor mention him. (Ps 6:4, 5; Isa 38:17-19) Yet it cannot be said that it simply represents ‘a condition of being separated from God,’ since the Scriptures render such a teaching untenable by showing that Sheol is “in front of” him, and that God is in effect “there.” (Pr 15:11; Ps 139:7, 8; Am 9:1, 2) For this reason Job, longing to be relieved of his suffering, prayed that he might go to Sheol and later be remembered by Jehovah and be called out from Sheol.—Job 14:12-15.

    Answer by lisarose45 at 2:07 PM on May. 11, 2010

  • No, I believe that they have been added to and taken from.

    Answer by GDIMOM at 3:10 PM on May. 11, 2010

  • I don't believe that most languages can translate to each other EXACTLY but you CAN get the meaning out of them... and I DO believe that most modern translations get as close as possible. I don't think the writers and scholars and translators twist things to meet an agenda. Those who think so just don't like the bible period.

    Answer by missbreezy214 at 3:17 PM on May. 11, 2010

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