I am reading the scriptures and I like to go back to the source that NT quotes and I found something of question. i do not want to start a heated debate just being honest.
John 23: says that apparently he replied in the words of Isaiah
"I am a voice shouting in the wilderness, Prepare a straight pathway for Lord's coming!"
Going back to Isaiah 40:3 It seems God is directly talking to the people of that time notice the wording.
"Listen! I hear the voice of someone shouting. Make a highway for the Lord through the wilderness." and at the end "The Lord has spoken!"
So is John just assuming he is who god spoke of or just quoting as in example? I ask only because his quote is incorrect
Asked by Anonymous at 8:15 PM on Jun. 10, 2010 in Religion & Beliefs
Answer by MamaRae85 at 8:41 PM on Jun. 10, 2010
Answer by Anonymous at 8:46 PM on Jun. 10, 2010
Answer by RidingPink at 12:52 AM on Jun. 11, 2010
Answer by oldermomof5 at 9:24 AM on Jun. 11, 2010
Answer by witchqueen at 4:15 PM on Jun. 11, 2010
Answer by MamaRae85 at 11:56 AM on Jun. 12, 2010
Answer by witchqueen at 3:50 PM on Jun. 15, 2010
Answer by witchqueen at 4:10 PM on Jun. 15, 2010
Answer by MamaRae85 at 11:48 PM on Jun. 18, 2010
Answer by MamaRae85 at 12:10 AM on Jun. 19, 2010