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Do you think the FDA Guidelines that state that any gay man who has had sex cannot give blood is offensive?

The ban was put in place in 1984 on the basis of the belief that HIV was passed between gay men having sex. This week the ban came up for a repeal vote and the was UPHELD by the FDA as a precaution against the spread of HIV...

While the ban doesn't actually ban gay men from giving it does ban any gay men that have EVER had sex...

Do you think it's offensive? Do you agree with the ban?


Asked by SabrinaMBowen at 9:14 PM on Jun. 22, 2010 in Politics & Current Events

Level 40 (122,988 Credits)
This question is closed.
Answers (56)
  • yes it is because EVERYONE is at risk for aids if they've had sex, not just gay men. it's a stereotype that was created in the 70's that being a gay man automatically meant aids and it's pure bull. a recent study from a few years ago showed that young african american women were at the highest risk for aids which again is complete bull. every single sexually active person who has more than one sex partner on average is at risk for stds so that being said anyone who has had sex shouldn't donate blood by the fda's standards. all sexually active people no matter the orientation should be tested and and if they are not tested or tested positively that should be a blood donation disqualification, not just ruling out one group of people most of which are completely healthy

    Answer by aliishott2 at 9:44 PM on Jun. 22, 2010

  • No, statistically it puts you in a high risk group. There are plenty of other groups of people who are ruled out because of choices they've made.

    Answer by new_mom808 at 9:16 PM on Jun. 22, 2010

  • That is discrimination. I don't think they should do that. Just because he is gay doesn't mean that he shouldn't be allowed to have the right to do anything a straight person can do.

    Answer by Michele068 at 9:17 PM on Jun. 22, 2010

  • depends. are they proven more likely to have some kind of disease that could be passed through the blood?

    Answer by Anonymous at 9:17 PM on Jun. 22, 2010

  • No not offensive.. I see it as a safety thing.

    Answer by Shaneagle777 at 9:19 PM on Jun. 22, 2010

  • Is a gay man really at a higher risk than anyone else? I have a number of gay friends, most of them have had 1 or 2 partners - 3 at the most... I don't know many straight women who can say the same... So why not just ban anyone who has ever had sex? What about addicts? Aren't they at higher risk?

    Come on... the blood is supposed to be tested anyways, but tested or not to single out anyone simply because they are gay and have sex isn't okay!

    Answer by SabrinaMBowen at 9:20 PM on Jun. 22, 2010

  • I agree with Michele068. It's discrimination,same as saying that someone can't do or go somewhere because of a disability or impairment.

    Answer by Robsmommy at 9:21 PM on Jun. 22, 2010

  • there are women that recieve anal sex just like a gay man how come the women that recieve anal sex not be banned either?

    Answer by Anonymous at 9:36 PM on Jun. 22, 2010

  • I understand the guidelines but anyone can lie so what is the point? Instead of implying gays are disease ridden why can't they simply do a blood test to check for diseases prior to donation? They do it at my blood bank, it takes extra time waiting for the results but it is possible. Otherwise I see it as discrimination. Some gay people are monogomous and have just 1 partner just like some straight people. I know way too many straight people with upwards of 20+ partners. Now that's scary!

    Answer by parrishsky at 9:38 PM on Jun. 22, 2010

  • maybe the should ban anyone who has had more than a certain number of partners. not just gay ones.

    Answer by Anonymous at 9:46 PM on Jun. 22, 2010