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Asked by ILOVEMYBOYS704 at 9:58 PM on Jul. 10, 2010 in Just for Fun

Level 21 (10,595 Credits)
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Answers (12)
  • French. 65% of English is either French words or a variation of French because: the French conquered England and ruled them for 300 years making the English language illegal and it had to go "underground" emerging as a combination of French and English. The Spanish never conquered England or had a huge influence on English. French is easier just because we "almost speak it now".

    Answer by jesse123456 at 10:42 PM on Jul. 10, 2010

  • oh and ASL

    Answer by CAGirl4 at 9:59 PM on Jul. 10, 2010

  • Spanish

    Answer by CAGirl4 at 9:59 PM on Jul. 10, 2010

  • The language spoken in Jamaica is not a broken language nor a lesser version of English. It is a creole. It is often called Patois or Jamaican Patois or Patwa. (When used as a common and not a proper noun, the term patois refers too any nonstandard language).

    When people who do not have a common language meet, the result is often a new means of communication called a pidgin, which is a mix of the two+ languages that came together. A pidgin is not a full language. When the children of pidgin speakers begin to speak this new language as their first language, however, the pidgin becomes a creole, and is a full, whole, complete, true language, with all the features and characteristics of any other natural human language.

    The OP's question is, of course, subjective. What is known, though, is that language distance plays a critical role in how easy it is for a certain person to learn a certain language. Language distance

    Answer by FelipesMom at 11:18 PM on Jul. 10, 2010

  • I took Spanish for 3 years not bad if you have a good instructor (although that was middle school and high school- so I don't remember much) - I have thought about taking it again because it is such a demand in the workforce now...

    Answer by hotrodmomma at 10:00 PM on Jul. 10, 2010

  • I agree...its becoming a High Demand.

    Comment by ILOVEMYBOYS704 (original poster) at 10:04 PM on Jul. 10, 2010

  • spanish, but my bf speaks surith so i know how to speak thhat as well

    Answer by DeeMarie87 at 10:12 PM on Jul. 10, 2010

  • I can speak in patwa, lol I think its called that oops, if I spelled it wrong. Its basically speaking how Jamaicans speak. But that may not be another language because its just broken language, but any one that has ever heard a Jamaican speak, you would probably have a hard time understanding. My ex husband was Jamaican.

    Answer by bellamommyof4 at 10:13 PM on Jul. 10, 2010

  • I can speak Japanese, French and English obviously. I actually found Japanese the easiest to learn.

    Answer by leah_rai at 10:15 PM on Jul. 10, 2010

  • ...refers to how closely two languages are "related." For example, French, Spanish, and Italian are all descended from Latin, and there fore are very similarr in a lot of ways (word order, gender marking, vocabulary, etc); Japanese and Quechua, on the other hand, are very distantly related (if at all) and therefore do not share a lot of these characteristics.

    But language contact is also important - for example, Basque and Spanish are not related at all, but since Basque speakers and Spanish speakers have been so close geographically for so long, there are myriad Spanish words that have been borrowed into Spanish, thus making it easier for a Spanish speaker to learn Basque than, say, Hungarian.

    On the other hand, two languages that are related (like French and Spanish) can have vastly different orthographies, meaning that learning to speak a language and learning to read and write it are two very different things.

    Answer by FelipesMom at 11:22 PM on Jul. 10, 2010