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s/o of the NT question: Where exactly in the bible does it say LESBIANS are sinning?

 
NotPanicking

Asked by NotPanicking at 5:16 PM on Aug. 13, 2010 in Religious Debate

Level 51 (421,172 Credits)
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Answers (31)
  • It doesn't - you know it and I know it... But as I said in the other question... Bigots will always find reasons to back their beliefs...
    SabrinaMBowen

    Answer by SabrinaMBowen at 5:20 PM on Aug. 13, 2010

  • In regard to the whole "without natural affection" thing, if homosexuality is something that occurs NATURALLY, how can that even apply? Its something that has happened throughout time, culture, and species. I'd say that makes it pretty natural!
    bandgeek521

    Answer by bandgeek521 at 8:29 PM on Aug. 13, 2010

  • It does... but not in the way you want it to say it.
    the word man was generally used to describe mankind unless otherwise specifically noted as man and woman.

    I know you guys are trying SO HARD to refute this but the truth is there that it is SIN period otherwise WHY would God be so specific about marriage between a male and a female and relationships between the two. Its ALL over the word of God that sexual relations, marriage is only specifically between a male and a female and any other kind is against God.
    When sin is so pleasurable we will do anything we can to deny it as being a sin.
    Shaneagle777

    Answer by Shaneagle777 at 5:37 PM on Aug. 13, 2010

  • Ok warning in coming very bad joke.


    Because like most men even god thinks two women kissing is hot.
    Alanaplus3

    Answer by Alanaplus3 at 6:22 PM on Aug. 13, 2010

  • So far,it is only MEN, as they say in a Bible passage posted somewhere today. Was it Leviticus? Anyway, they mentioned men lying with men. Nothing about women with women.
    But I am not taking any of those Bible passages seriously since they were written by men pretending to be quoting God. Ha.
    gertie41

    Answer by gertie41 at 5:26 PM on Aug. 13, 2010

  • It does not.
    older

    Answer by older at 5:27 PM on Aug. 13, 2010

  • OK here is my good Christian answer to please my fellow Christians They will try and tell you that when it says mankind it refers to woman kind as well. That sodomy is a term for homosexuality in general. It is just all around a horrible thing to do.

    So now that I have please the masses. In truth homosexuality is never in the bible. OT or NT. Though I will post on the OT a little later. The things in the bible that appear to be about homosexuality in fact is about Male prostitution, using intimate digestible objects (Like cucumbers, etc. Things that should not go in the vagina or around the penis), orgy's, incests, rape, and my favorite the most commonly misconceived is To go from a man to a woman and soil the birthing area. Now here is the sad thing. God him self could come down here and say it, though they will convince them selves that it is a trick of the devil. To much brain washing.
    hot-mama86

    Answer by hot-mama86 at 7:53 PM on Aug. 13, 2010

  • Personally. I don't think God has said anything about this anywhere....just a bunch of humans writing words that they "think" they are getting from God. Its all fiction.
    gertie41

    Answer by gertie41 at 9:38 PM on Aug. 13, 2010

  • IF we were supposed to be with those of the same sex, then procration would not be limited to male/female intercourse. Like other species, when confronted with same sex senerios, the females are able to change to male. - can't for the life of me think of the term...probably because it is past midnight.

    There is a reason that guys have an outtie, and girls have an innie.....our bodies make NO SENSE alone or with like bodies. We are designed to fit together like a puzzle piece
    Maureen-MD

    Answer by Maureen-MD at 12:12 AM on Aug. 14, 2010

  • Ever consider that homosexuality might be a natural form of population control so that humans don't completely use up the earth's resources and thus cause our own extinction?
    angelenia

    Answer by angelenia at 2:32 AM on Aug. 14, 2010

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