Chapter 18 refers to sexual laws. So many say that verse 22 refers to homosexuality. But why would the author use a different word than the one for sex or defile when in verse 20 and 23 those words are used if that is the point? Isn't it more likely that there is another meaning? I'll post verses in replies.Answer Question
Answer by older at 10:34 AM on Aug. 29, 2010
Answer by lovinangels at 10:45 AM on Aug. 29, 2010
Honestly, you are not going to find your answers until you dive into the original language. Let's remember that even though many people look at the KJV as the "original" it is not. It was created by a government power (King James) and the Roman Catholic Church (who at that time were almost the same as government). It's good that you are reading lots of versions, but it's the original that will show you the truth. I have heard that verse 22 refers more to pedophilia than homosexuality. I have not read the original, or know enough about it to say whether or not this is true. I have to say that to me personally it would make more sense to have pedophilia referred to as detestable over homosexuality, but hey, I didn't write the Bible either.
Answer by scout_mom at 10:49 AM on Aug. 29, 2010
Answer by bandgeek521 at 11:01 AM on Aug. 29, 2010
Answer by Laura2U at 12:02 PM on Aug. 29, 2010
Answer by Laura2U at 12:03 PM on Aug. 29, 2010