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Leviticus

Chapter 18 refers to sexual laws. So many say that verse 22 refers to homosexuality. But why would the author use a different word than the one for sex or defile when in verse 20 and 23 those words are used if that is the point? Isn't it more likely that there is another meaning? I'll post verses in replies.

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purpleducky

Asked by purpleducky at 10:30 AM on Aug. 29, 2010 in Religious Debate

Level 21 (11,829 Credits)
Answers (42)
  • Leviticus 18:20

    You shall not have intercourse with your neighbor's wife, to be defiled with her. (NASB)

    Do not defile yourself by having sexual intercourse with your neighbor’s wife. (NLT)

    Do not have sexual relations with your neighbor's wife and defile yourself with her. (NIV)

    Moreover you shall not lie carnally with your neighbor’s wife, to defile yourself with her. (NKJV)

    And unto the wife of thy fellow thou dost not give thy seed of copulation, for uncleanness with her. (YLT)
    purpleducky

    Comment by purpleducky (original poster) at 10:31 AM on Aug. 29, 2010

  • Leviticus 18:22

    You shall not lie with a male as one lies with a female; it is an abomination. (NASB)

    Do not practice homosexuality, having sex with another man as with a woman. It is a detestable sin. (NLT) *But I will admit I have issues with this translation since homosexuality wasn't a word until like the 18th century)

    Do not lie with a man as one lies with a woman; that is detestable. (NIV)

    You shall not lie with a male as with a woman. It is an abomination. (NKJV)

    And with a male thou dost not lie as one lieth with a woman; abomination it [is].(YLT)
    purpleducky

    Comment by purpleducky (original poster) at 10:31 AM on Aug. 29, 2010

  • Leviticus 18:23

    Also you shall not have intercourse with any animal to be defiled with it, nor shall any woman stand before an animal to mate with it; it is a perversion.(NASB)

    A man must not defile himself by having sex with an animal. And a woman must not offer herself to a male animal to have intercourse with it. This is a perverse act. (NLT)

    Do not have sexual relations with an animal and defile yourself with it. A woman must not present herself to an animal to have sexual relations with it; that is a perversion. (NIV)

    Nor shall you mate with any animal, to defile yourself with it. Nor shall any woman stand before an animal to mate with it. It is perversion.(NKJV)

    And with any beast thou dost not give thy copulation, for uncleanness with it; and a woman doth not stand before a beast to lie down with it; confusion it [is]. (YLT)
    purpleducky

    Comment by purpleducky (original poster) at 10:31 AM on Aug. 29, 2010

  • This should be interesting!!!!!! can't wait for some answers!!!!! in the mean time, let's bump ya love!
    older

    Answer by older at 10:34 AM on Aug. 29, 2010

  • The need for the mechanical translation is great. The literal translation of that verse is something like "remember, do not bed a woman, it is abomination."

    I don't know enough about Hebrew to know where the rest of that verse came from, however they are doing some fabulous work right now that should give us a better understanding of what words written then meant then, if that makes any sense.
    lovinangels

    Answer by lovinangels at 10:45 AM on Aug. 29, 2010

  • Honestly, you are not going to find your answers until you dive into the original language. Let's remember that even though many people look at the KJV as the "original" it is not. It was created by a government power (King James) and the Roman Catholic Church (who at that time were almost the same as government). It's good that you are reading lots of versions, but it's the original that will show you the truth. I have heard that verse 22 refers more to pedophilia than homosexuality. I have not read the original, or know enough about it to say whether or not this is true. I have to say that to me personally it would make more sense to have pedophilia referred to as detestable over homosexuality, but hey, I didn't write the Bible either.

    scout_mom

    Answer by scout_mom at 10:49 AM on Aug. 29, 2010

  • Scout mom, I know the original is the best but I can't read Hebrew, lol. So I try to find what Jews believe the verse to be and then compare it to translations and if it is close enough I just go with the translations. However, too many do not research anything about their religion yet spew hate. So it is to them that my question is geared. How can you possibly say that one verse refers to sex when sex is not mentioned yet other verses use the word sex.
    purpleducky

    Comment by purpleducky (original poster) at 10:59 AM on Aug. 29, 2010

  • I have read that the original word implied pedophilia, male prostitution, and homosexual rape...

    I highly recommend that documentary For the Bible Tells Me So.
    bandgeek521

    Answer by bandgeek521 at 11:01 AM on Aug. 29, 2010


  • Lev 18:19 ¶ Also thou shalt not approach unto a woman to uncover her nakedness, as long as she is put apart for her uncleanness.


    Lev 18:20 Moreover thou shalt not lie carnally with thy neighbour's wife, to defile thyself with her.


    Lev 18:21 And thou shalt not let any of thy seed pass through [the fire] to Molech, neither shalt thou profane the name of thy God: I [am] the LORD.


    Lev 18:22 Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it [is] abomination.


    Lev 18:23 Neither shalt thou lie with any beast to defile thyself therewith: neither shall any woman stand before a beast to lie down thereto: it [is] confusion.
    In verse 20, the term "lie" (in the KJV) means "copulation", or intercourse which can result in pregnancy. Since a man lying with a man cannot end in pregnancy, that term is not used. Instead a similar Hebrew word is used which means just plain intercourse.
    Laura2U

    Answer by Laura2U at 12:02 PM on Aug. 29, 2010

  • In verse 23, the same word "lie" which mean "copulation" is used in reference to sex with animals because a seed can be passed from male human to female animal, thus resulting in a pregnancy.

    So you see, a different word is used because a different result could happen. Because of the Hebrew words used, we know it is clearly talking about male-male relations in verse 22.
    Laura2U

    Answer by Laura2U at 12:03 PM on Aug. 29, 2010

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