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2 Bumps

Are there any?

Are there any New Testament bible verses that speak against homosexuality? I have asked this question several times in other questions, and can't seem to get a response, so I will ask it all by itself. Some people don't seem to want to answer after they find out I am bisexual.
-Ashley

Answer Question
 
spiritguide_23

Asked by spiritguide_23 at 6:31 PM on Sep. 16, 2010 in Religious Debate

Level 23 (16,700 Credits)
Answers (22)
  • Supposedly one in Romans, one in 1 Cor. and one in 1 Timothy does. However, when read in context and in the original language, the words do not translate as homosexual or even male on male sex. The words used are effeminate (which roughly means temple male prostitute) or relate to pagan sex rituals or is a word Paul just made up which is a combination of bed and male, which could have any number of meanings. The word for male on male sex is NEVER used in the NT.
    purpleducky

    Answer by purpleducky at 6:38 PM on Sep. 16, 2010

  • Romans 1:26For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:

    27And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.
    Laura2U

    Answer by Laura2U at 6:42 PM on Sep. 16, 2010

  • purple, in Romans 1:27 when it says "the men" it is translated: men. Every single time the word men is used in that verse it is translated "A man". http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G730&t=KJV
    Laura2U

    Answer by Laura2U at 6:46 PM on Sep. 16, 2010

  • : "If a man lies with a male as he lies with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination." (Leviticus 20:13). "You shall not lie with a male as with a woman. It is an abomination. Nor shall you mate with any animal, to defile yourself with it. Nor shall any woman stand before an animal to mate with it. It is perversion. ‘Do not defile yourselves with any of these things; for by all these the nations are defiled, which I am casting out before you." (Leviticus 18:22-24)

    source: http://godvoter.org/homosexuality-bible-verses.html
    ahhmericanwoman

    Answer by ahhmericanwoman at 6:51 PM on Sep. 16, 2010

  • And the phrase "that which is unseemly" is a feminine phrase referring to women genitals. Because the men were doing with each other what they were supposed to be doing with women.


    (I just figured out how to do the full editor. lol)

    Laura2U

    Answer by Laura2U at 6:51 PM on Sep. 16, 2010

  • ahhmericanwoman, Leviticus is OT.
    KelleyP77

    Answer by KelleyP77 at 6:54 PM on Sep. 16, 2010

  • ahhhhmericanwoman, last time I checked my bible, Leviticus was an Old Testament book.
    And Laura, which version are you using?
    spiritguide_23

    Comment by spiritguide_23 (original poster) at 6:54 PM on Sep. 16, 2010

  • Actually there isn't any in either the OT or NT. They refer to ritualistic sex, and forced same sex sex. Not homosexuality. Don't worry I'm Christian have done the girl and guy thing, though not at the same time I don't share well. I have also decided if I and dh don't work out I'm done with asshole men.
    hot-mama86

    Answer by hot-mama86 at 7:22 PM on Sep. 16, 2010

  • Wasn't it common practice before the bible was even written for there to be male prostitutes or male sex slaves? Perhaps this is what the bible is referring too? To sway people away from the use of people in this way? NOT homosexuals in a loving, committed relationship as we see today. (Besides the fact that homosexual is not used)
    sahmamax2

    Answer by sahmamax2 at 7:26 PM on Sep. 16, 2010

  • sahmamax2 - Yes, that is very correct. Many temples were just big sex parties and not everyone was willing.
    purpleducky

    Answer by purpleducky at 7:28 PM on Sep. 16, 2010

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