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Divinely Inspired?

Ok, I understand that 2 Tim. 3:16 states that all Scripture is inspired by God. But in Paul's time Scripture would've been the OT only...right? So wasn't he just addressing that the OT is divinely inspired? How can you derive from this that the NT is divinely inspired? There was no way for Paul to know that there would be a council of men that would add to the Holy Book. So how can you say that the NT is divinely inspired? Just curious what line of reasoning people use.

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purpleducky

Asked by purpleducky at 6:11 PM on Oct. 1, 2010 in Religious Debate

Level 21 (11,829 Credits)
Answers (21)
  • I would think that the NT is even more devinely inspired considering that it holds Jesus's words.
    BUTTERCUP777

    Answer by BUTTERCUP777 at 6:19 PM on Oct. 1, 2010

  • BUTTERCUP777- it holds more of Paul's words than it does the words of Jesus.

    IhartU

    Answer by IhartU at 7:21 PM on Oct. 1, 2010

  • Yeah, Paul was just writing letters to churches he had contact with he had no idea his letters would be used as doctrine and added to scripture.

    Chniamli

    Answer by Chniamli at 7:42 PM on Oct. 1, 2010

  • That is a very good observation. I'm curious about the answers.
    KelleyP77

    Answer by KelleyP77 at 7:50 PM on Oct. 1, 2010

  • Paul was FILLED with the Holy Spirit... Holy Spirit is God and Jesus... so still its God's words and divinely inspired...
    Everything written was in a letter format so lets see what was going on when Paul said this.. Ah lets read this again.. it says ALL scripture.... not part scripture... not past scripture not present or future but ALL scripture.. that means past present and future :-)
    It covers everything and Holy Spirit KNEW that and spoke that through Paul.
    Shaneagle777

    Answer by Shaneagle777 at 8:07 PM on Oct. 1, 2010

  • So anything anyone who is Christian and filled with the Holy Spirit who writes something should be considered divinely inspired? But aren't all Christians filled with the Holy Spirit?
    purpleducky

    Comment by purpleducky (original poster) at 8:14 PM on Oct. 1, 2010

  • That's a really good question. There have been whole books written on this subject so I will just address some highlights of the arguments:

    1. Paul refers to the book of Luke as scripture placing it on the same level as the OT writings (1 Timothy 5:18).

    2. Peter refers to Paul's writings as scripture (2 Peter 3:16).

    3. Paul considers his own writings as directly from the Holy Spirit, not from fallen man (1 Cor 2:13) and that they are the commands of the Lord (1 Cor 14:37), so he obviously believed his words were inspired.

    There is much more evidence and when the canon was compiled there were very specific reasons each book was included. These men did not just willy-nilly throw a book together, but worked very carefully to compile the writings of the NT.
    solamama

    Answer by solamama at 8:23 PM on Oct. 1, 2010

  • I should clarify point 1 - he quotes Luke and Deuteronomy in the same verse implying he believed it held the same inspiration and authority.
    solamama

    Answer by solamama at 8:27 PM on Oct. 1, 2010

  • I agree with solamama.
    duckigrrl

    Answer by duckigrrl at 8:38 PM on Oct. 1, 2010

  • Paul was the only apostle not with Jesus. Paul's conversion came from literal divine intervention. God spoke directly to Paul just as Jesus had done to the other apostles. He was given visions as direct communication from God, such as where to go and what to say. Just as John received when he wrote Revelation. Peter writes from a first hand knowledge and through inspiration. Remember there was no "bible" as we know it in the new testament. The apostles job was to continue in Jesus ministry of creating a new "religion'', what becomes known as Christianity. All the new testament writers were divinely inspired as were the those of the old testament.
    jessa1091

    Answer by jessa1091 at 9:14 PM on Oct. 1, 2010

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