Ok, I understand that 2 Tim. 3:16 states that all Scripture is inspired by God. But in Paul's time Scripture would've been the OT only...right? So wasn't he just addressing that the OT is divinely inspired? How can you derive from this that the NT is divinely inspired? There was no way for Paul to know that there would be a council of men that would add to the Holy Book. So how can you say that the NT is divinely inspired? Just curious what line of reasoning people use.Answer Question
Answer by BUTTERCUP777 at 6:19 PM on Oct. 1, 2010
Answer by IhartU at 7:21 PM on Oct. 1, 2010
Yeah, Paul was just writing letters to churches he had contact with he had no idea his letters would be used as doctrine and added to scripture.
Answer by Chniamli at 7:42 PM on Oct. 1, 2010
Answer by KelleyP77 at 7:50 PM on Oct. 1, 2010
Answer by Shaneagle777 at 8:07 PM on Oct. 1, 2010
Answer by solamama at 8:23 PM on Oct. 1, 2010
Answer by solamama at 8:27 PM on Oct. 1, 2010
Answer by duckigrrl at 8:38 PM on Oct. 1, 2010
Answer by jessa1091 at 9:14 PM on Oct. 1, 2010
Next question overall
Why are Indian guys so perverted toward white girls? They don't talk about...