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Divinely Inspired? Part 2

Ok, so I have another question. 2 Tim. 3:16 states that all Scripture is divinely inspired. However, Paul never makes the distinction between Jewish, Christian, Muslim, Hellenic, etc. Scriptures. So couldn't it be said that he was saying that Scripture of all religions is divinely inspired?

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Asked by purpleducky at 10:06 PM on Oct. 1, 2010 in Religious Debate

Level 21 (11,829 Credits)
Answers (18)
  • no. i don't think so. IMO

    Answer by dullscissors at 10:10 PM on Oct. 1, 2010

  • Why? What is your support for that?

    Comment by purpleducky (original poster) at 10:13 PM on Oct. 1, 2010

  • i don't have any 'support'. its just my opinion. IMO i feel he was directly speaking about those scriptures he was writing about, and the ones passed down that he knew of, and had studied through fellow apostles/leaders/followers of Christ. it never occurred to me he would be speaking of 'other holy' words.


    Answer by dullscissors at 10:25 PM on Oct. 1, 2010

  • I believe they are ;)

    I believe each text shows us how they see/understand/relate to God/the Divine. They all show the truth through their various perspective and understandings.

    I believe God did this on purpose, as we all have different spiritual/intellectual/etc needs, and ways of understanding things.

    Answer by bandgeek521 at 10:27 PM on Oct. 1, 2010

  • He was speaking to a Christian church.
    II Tim. 3:14But continue thou in the things which thou hast learned and hast been assured of, knowing of whom thou hast learned them;
    15And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.
    16All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
    17That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.
    He wouldn't have said "faith in Christ Jesus" and talked about God, if he was including all religions. He was talking to a specific group of Christians that believed in Jesus for their salvation.

    Answer by Laura2U at 10:52 PM on Oct. 1, 2010

  • No because the one He served is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. That is who he was referring to. He was also speaking to the Christians as well.
    Laura2u hit it nail on the head.

    Answer by Shaneagle777 at 11:15 PM on Oct. 1, 2010

  • well i see Paul in a pretty negative light, so i doubt he would think anything was divine other than what he was teaching. but from reading the whole of the verses (thanks Laura) it does seem like Paul means only Jewish/OT scripture as thats pretty much all they would know.

    Answer by okmanders at 11:38 PM on Oct. 1, 2010

  • No, I think you're reading into it.

    Answer by mp3mom at 12:57 AM on Oct. 2, 2010

  • where religion is concerned, anyone can pretty much say anything because there's no requirement of evidence, just faith.

    Answer by Zoeyis at 8:27 AM on Oct. 2, 2010

  • It's the bible, ANYTHING is possible. It's all about each persons' interpretation of it.

    Answer by sahmamax2 at 9:24 AM on Oct. 2, 2010

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