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can you technically sexually "rape" a man

is it possible for a woman to sexually rape a man because doesn't he have to be aroused for his penis to get erect?

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Asked by marie0430815 at 10:29 PM on Oct. 23, 2008 in Politics & Current Events

Level 5 (68 Credits)
Answers (15)
  • yes a woman can rape a man... erection is not only due to arousal...fear, being sick, having to go to the bathroom, etc

    Answer by mamakirs at 10:38 PM on Oct. 23, 2008

  • Yes, you most definitely can. That is one of the things that young boys who have been molested deal with. Not only the violation, but the betrayal of their own bodies. That their bodies will do what they are biologically capable of doing against their wishes.

    Sensation and arousal through sexual stimulation against someones will, is molestation. Arousal or orgasm under circumstances that are not of your choosing is a violation. Regardless of whether their body responds.

    If a man said it wasn't rape because a womans nipples were hard and she was wet, he'd be on his way to some jail time.


    Answer by Kestrel1 at 10:39 PM on Oct. 23, 2008

  • There were boys in a high school in California some years back that attacked another boy in the gym. They sodomized him with a broom handle and three of them were charged with sodomy and sexual assault. So yes, I think it is possible. Rape is about control not sex.

    How is a man erect w/o being aroused? You mean like a woodie from a full bladder? Because the erections they get at night are from arousal..subconscious..but arousal.

    Answer by GrnEyedGrandma at 10:39 PM on Oct. 23, 2008

  • Rape is any sexual act forced upon someone. A man can be raped by being sodomized against his will. Of course, a woman would need to use something.

    Answer by crazydogchick at 10:41 PM on Oct. 23, 2008

  • Yep. There are times that I touch my hubby and he has a boner but he's not in the mood or aroused. If I were to tie him down I could rape him.

    Answer by MarlyeGirl at 10:46 PM on Oct. 23, 2008

  • yes a man can be rape. being sodomized is actually a separate charge. a man can get aroused even if he is being forced and when a man is forced to have sex it is rape.

    Answer by ny.chica at 10:50 PM on Oct. 23, 2008

  • Legally all a man has to do is say NO and it is considered rape just like for a female.

    Answer by JD08 at 10:51 PM on Oct. 23, 2008

  • An erection is caused by an increased blood flow to the penis. This is usually caused by arousal, but that is often caused by stimulation.

    Rape is when someone forces sex on another person as a means of control. When you touch a man sexually without his consent it's sexual assault. If you have penetration (whether the man is "receiving" or "giving") it's rape.

    Admittedly, it's (usually) harder for one man to rape another man, but, sadly, there are MANY cases of boys that are sexually assaulted (by both women and men), and men who are victims of "gang rapes".

    Answer by sailorwifenmom at 11:09 PM on Oct. 23, 2008

  • Maybe by another man, but not by a woman IMO.

    Answer by Anonymous at 12:03 AM on Oct. 24, 2008

  • I dunno if you can or not but I'd be willing to try it with Vin Diesel!

    Answer by Anonymous at 12:38 AM on Oct. 24, 2008

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