I see so many concerned about Muslims choosing to follow Sharia, in the states, for civil cases. Stating the Constitution is the law of the land and such. If that is the case why doesn't anyone complain about some Jewish communities using Beth Din, also only for civil cases?
What's the difference?
Answer by samurai_chica at 11:33 AM on Oct. 8, 2010
Answer by gertie41 at 11:47 AM on Oct. 8, 2010
Answer by gammie at 11:48 AM on Oct. 8, 2010
Answer by grlygrlz2 at 11:54 AM on Oct. 8, 2010
Answer by stacymomof2 at 12:18 PM on Oct. 8, 2010
Because they are scarey Muslims being demonized by stupid republicans and their vapid followers
Answer by sweet-a-kins at 12:34 PM on Oct. 8, 2010
Is there a specific question/previous CM post directed towards Sharia Law being used in civil cases?
WOW...now pretend to hide your head in the sand...
Answer by sweet-a-kins at 12:35 PM on Oct. 8, 2010
Answer by delilahsmom1177 at 12:36 PM on Oct. 8, 2010