Answer by BrandyBaby22 at 6:37 PM on Oct. 11, 2010
Answer by Gal51 at 3:40 PM on Oct. 11, 2010
Answer by Anna92464 at 2:56 PM on Oct. 11, 2010
Answer by SparklingHope at 3:00 PM on Oct. 11, 2010
Gods name was considered very sacred, it was not to be written where it could be destroyed, and it wasn't to be said outside of the temple, so people would called God Adonai, which means Lord, among other things, so calling God Lord probably continued on when the bible was translated.
Not to mention that Jehovah is debated whether or not it was a translation error, many believe it is Yahweh, but truly the real pronunciation of YHWH has probably been lost forever.
Answer by Plum419 at 3:00 PM on Oct. 11, 2010
I think the name "Jehovah" is actually a result of ignorance about the Hebrew language, which the Bible is originally written in. The Hebrew language doesn't have vocals per se, as letters. Vocals are written as signs under the consonants. Native Hebrew speakers by now don't even need "vocals" and many texts come without those signs. That's how this particular name is written in the OT- without vocals. So the actual translation would be YHWH. As that is unpronounceable, certain translations have attempted to add vocals to it, hence the terms "yahweh", "Jehova", etc. But this are inaccurate. When we Jews encounter that particular name of G-d, that's when we use the term "Hashem", the actual name we use during prayer I prefer not to write colloquially.
Answer by momto2boys973 at 3:02 PM on Oct. 11, 2010
John 17:26: “[Jesus prayed to his Father:] I have made your name known to them [his followers] and will make it known, in order that the love with which you loved me may be in them and I in union with them.”
Acts 15:14: “Symeon has related thoroughly how God for the first time turned his attention to the nations to take out of them a people for his name.”
Romans 10:13 For “everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will be saved.”
Answer by PinkLentil at 3:09 PM on Oct. 11, 2010
Answer by UpSheRises at 3:02 PM on Oct. 11, 2010
The preface of the Revised Standard Version says “...(1) the word ‘Jehovah’ does not accurately represent any form of the Name ever used in Hebrew; and (2) the use of any proper name for the one and only God, as though there were other gods from whom he had to be distinguished, was discontinued in Judaism before the Christian era and is entirely inappropriate for the universal faith of the Christian Church.”
SO, their own view of what is appropriate has been relied on as the basis for removing God's personal name (a name which appears in the original Hebrew more often than any other name or any title). They admit to following the example of the adherents of Judaism, of whom Jesus said: “You have made the word of God invalid because of your tradition.” - Matt.15:6.
Answer by PinkLentil at 3:07 PM on Oct. 11, 2010
Answer by NannyB. at 3:22 PM on Oct. 11, 2010
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