...so I have reconciled with the notion that I can be considered "bisexual". However, I am married to a man. I know several people who are also married to men but who have an "open" clause in their relationship so they could be with women if they wanted to. I do not have this.
Do you think that is right, or fair?
In marrying a man, I am basically denying an inherent part of myself...and I don't know if I will be totally happy...ever...in this regard.
What do you think? Would you be able to be happy if your spouse told you that you could not have something that he also could NOT give you?
Asked by Anonymous at 11:42 PM on Nov. 7, 2010 in Relationships
Answer by musicpisces at 11:45 PM on Nov. 7, 2010
Answer by musicpisces at 11:46 PM on Nov. 7, 2010
Answer by JunebugsMomma8 at 11:53 PM on Nov. 7, 2010
Answer by ohwrite at 12:14 AM on Nov. 8, 2010
Answer by sparkle0940 at 6:49 AM on Nov. 8, 2010
Answer by RubyinPA at 8:59 AM on Nov. 8, 2010
Answer by Goodniteandgo at 11:42 AM on Nov. 8, 2010
Answer by ItsMe89 at 12:46 PM on Nov. 8, 2010
Answer by Ati_13 at 1:21 PM on Nov. 8, 2010
Answer by isabellalecour at 2:23 PM on Nov. 8, 2010
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