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Ok, I wanna know..

I'll just preface this, I'm not going to reply to anything unless someone asks me directly or says they'd like a reply. That should show I'm being serious about the answers I hope to get..

Everyone welcome to answer..

Why do we only uphold certain OT laws. I was told by many people of a certain religion not to be named here, that whenever their Saviour died on the cross he made the OT laws useless and to gain entrance to heaven, you needed only believe in him etc. , however that appears to not be the case and I am simply wondering why all people of this certain religion who harp about a certain OT law aren't also waiting 66 days after birthing a female to be clean, or why the other things that are called 'abominations' in their religious text aren't also still considered an abomination today.

Okay, that was as nice as I could possibly make it and I'm being very serious, no sarcasm at all, no "entrapment" etc. Thanks.

Answer Question
 
gabrielle_x

Asked by gabrielle_x at 1:59 PM on Nov. 18, 2010 in Religious Debate

Level 13 (957 Credits)
Answers (16)
  • Since you asked so nicely ....

    You have understand the purposes of OT law.

    First, the purpose is to show us what is righteous in God's eyes, and what is not. What is not righteous is considered sin. When we recognize our sin, we recognize our need for a Savior.
    Second, PART of the OT law was used for blood atonement - that is, blood sacrifices made as payment for sins. Ultimately what is learned is that one can never perform enough blood sacrifices in order to atone for all of their sin, THUS we need atonement from a perfect sacrifice - Christ.
    Third, PART of OT law was simply to keep the nation of Israel thriving. The cleanliness laws had more to do with hygiene than with sin. (Although to break the cleanliness still counted as sin). With proper hygiene and diet, the nation of Israel was able to survive the most horrendous illnesses in earth's history. During the Bubonic Plague epidemic, Jews were surviving b/c of these ..
    Gal51

    Answer by Gal51 at 2:07 PM on Nov. 18, 2010

  • IDK, they should some out with another book clarifying wich OT versus are right & which are not, because i am totally confused at what some Christians choose to believe & choose to ignore & why....

    Those damn loopholes again...
    samurai_chica

    Answer by samurai_chica at 2:08 PM on Nov. 18, 2010

  • I may be wrong here, but the laws God is referring to that no longer apply are the ones concerning animal sacrfices to get into heaven. I would love to know though if there is a verse or passage stating differently. I'm kinda curious myself now.
    Scarlet_Delilah

    Answer by Scarlet_Delilah at 2:08 PM on Nov. 18, 2010

  • OT = Law. You had to follow all laws, every tiny little detail the correct way, there was no getting around it, just the way it was. New Testament = Grace. The Law was finished when Jesus died on the cross and was resurrected. However, all the commandments -honor thy father and thy mother, no other gods, no adultery, etc, carried forward. Worshipping on the Sabbath tho, turned to worship on the first day of the week --Sunday. Bottom line, we dont have to sacrifice animals, we dont have to worry about not eating certain animals, we don't have to worry about not touching the ark of the covenant. Hope this helps.
    duckigrrl

    Answer by duckigrrl at 2:09 PM on Nov. 18, 2010

  • ... cleanliness laws. In fact, those people who were falling ill to the plague blamed the Jews since they weren't dying.
    Fourth, PART of OT law was for civil government. In fact, if you look at much of the civil government laws in the OT, THAT is where you will find the corollaries between American law (as it was founded by our fore fathers) and OT civil government law. The nation of Israel had to also run a government, so this law told them the most effective means of doing that.
    Gal51

    Answer by Gal51 at 2:10 PM on Nov. 18, 2010

  • BTW .... OT law was never abolished. Christ said that he came to fulfill the law, not abolish it. He went on to say that if you love Him, you will obey the law. When He says that He fulfilled the law, He is talking about blood atonement. We no longer have to perform blood sacrifices for our sins, because he fulfilled that sacrifice with His own death. If ANY part of the law was broken it required blood sacrifice for atonement. Christ fulfilled that, so that we can freely obey Him and His law. This of course means that certain laws no longer apply (those pertaining to blood sacrifice/atonement) but that doesn't negate the rest of the law.
    Gal51

    Answer by Gal51 at 2:13 PM on Nov. 18, 2010

  • I think this is an interesting question, and one I could never figure out when I was a Christian. I'm not sure how they pick and choose which OT laws to follow, and I thought the NT was meant to replace the OT.

    This also reminds me of a discussion my DH and I had recently where he was telling me more about some of the various Gnostic Christian beliefs. Some believe that the God of the OT was really The Demiurge, the offspring of Sophia who was really "evil, jealous, rigid, lacking in compassion, and prone to genocide". Sophia tries to set things right with Jesus according to some of those traditions. Fascinating stuff--from their POV the entire OT is about a lower god who was jealous and cruel.
    Religious Tolerance Gnostic Beliefs
    pam19

    Answer by pam19 at 3:03 PM on Nov. 18, 2010

  • You're referring to homosexuality aren't you? ;)

    I'll answer the best I can, especially given the considerate way you posited your question.

    I believe its important to look at the real meaning behind the laws, in the Jewish tradition, and understand the Jewish faith. From what I understand (and any of our Jewish friends can correct me if I'm misinformed) Judaism is a faith that puts immense focus on acting out one's faith through the everyday moments of life. The Levitical law contains things like the priestly code and the holiness code, and so on, which have more to do with purity and religious rites than with "sin". And its more to do with the Jews acting out their covenant with God - hence the incorporating purity and God consciousness through even the most mundane tasks of life.

    This also helps us understand the word abomination, - which I'll address in another reply, as I'm running out of room.
    bandgeek521

    Answer by bandgeek521 at 3:47 PM on Nov. 18, 2010

  • The word abomination had more to do with these religious restrictions, these matters of religious purity. It was usually used to refer to something that was forbidden or unclean, or ritually "improper".

    You can read more about it here :

    http://www.religioustolerance.org/hom_bibh2.htm
    bandgeek521

    Answer by bandgeek521 at 3:53 PM on Nov. 18, 2010

  • Oh, and given that understanding of abomination and Levitical law, I don't believe that its something that we as Christians are obligated to live by - especially given what I've come to understand about Jews believing that the Torah and law was intended for them, and not for Gentiles (I think I have that right - they believe that non-Jews are not meant to be bound by all of the laws of Judaism, but instead are only subject to the seven Noachide laws, but that's another discussion, I guess). I hope that makes sense....
    bandgeek521

    Answer by bandgeek521 at 4:02 PM on Nov. 18, 2010

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