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Wow... Divorce Court Case...

So, I never watch this show, but I have it on while I'm working today cause I was to lazy to get up and change the channel... Anyways, the case is this...

Married couple (male & female) are divorcing because the wife decided to transition in to a man. She started on hormone therapy with her husband's blessing & allowed him to go find a girlfriend so that he didn't feel like he had to give things up. Now the husband, who agreed to the therapy, decided he doesn't want to be married to a man...

WTH? If you didn't want to be married to a man, why did you okay her becoming one?

My other question is this... If Gay marriage isn't legal in their state (which I don't believe it is) is their marriage even valid now that they are both men? How does that work?

Answer Question
 
SabrinaMBowen

Asked by SabrinaMBowen at 1:48 PM on Nov. 26, 2010 in Relationships

Level 40 (122,988 Credits)
Answers (2)
  • I believe is still is. If a person lost their genitalia in an auto accident for example,they'd still be the same person. She's still genetically female despite having a "penis".
    butterflyblue19

    Answer by butterflyblue19 at 2:15 PM on Nov. 26, 2010

  • ummm wow interesting thought...I guess it would still be considered a legal and binding marital contract because they married before the "change" occurred...but any ways that is a very messed up relationship.

    4_28_bbboy

    Answer by 4_28_bbboy at 6:20 PM on Nov. 26, 2010

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