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Can someone really explain to me why....

Can someone please tell me where in the bible they find what they call "proof" that homosexuality is "wrong"?

Answer Question

Asked by spencersgirl at 12:06 AM on Nov. 9, 2008 in Religion & Beliefs

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Answers (39)
  • sure... i dont know the exact place but i will grab my bible right now! get back with u...

    it does say to lay with another man is sin....something along those lines

    Answer by JuLiAnSmOmMy317 at 12:09 AM on Nov. 9, 2008

  • Leviticus 18:22; 1 Cor 6:9; Rom 1:26-27

    Answer by Lexylex at 12:12 AM on Nov. 9, 2008

  • Lev. 18:22 You shall not lie with a male as with a woman. It is an abomination.

    1 Corinthians 6:9 Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind

    Romans 1:26,27 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.

    Answer by Lexylex at 12:20 AM on Nov. 9, 2008

  • And Romans 1:32 (if there was any question)...Who knowing the judgment of God, that they which commit such things are worthy of death, not only do the same, but have pleasure in them that do them

    Answer by Lexylex at 12:22 AM on Nov. 9, 2008

  • Romans 6:23-- For the wages of sin is death; but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.

    Marriage is between a man and woman. (Mathew 19:4-5) And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female, 5And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?


    Answer by Lexylex at 12:33 AM on Nov. 9, 2008

  • all Old Testament "laws" went the way of the Dodo when Jesus was born & died people! ignore any laws in the old testament! this means Leviticus

    That was told to me by a baptist preacher about the laws being null-and-void after Jesus !

    Answer by Anonymous at 12:35 AM on Nov. 9, 2008

  • Yes...the Bible excuses rape, incest, murder, etc...

    ...but don't love a person of the same sex or eat pork...

    And notice the only verse that actually says don't lie with another man if you are a man is THE SAME BOOK THAT SAYS DON'T EAT PORK? And what is the Christian excuse for being allowed to eat pork now?

    Makes so much sense to me...As my grandfather says, "If you believe and follow everything the Bible says, you are either a liar, or you never really read it."

    Answer by thalassa at 12:37 AM on Nov. 9, 2008


    please read that for more info on the bible and homosexuality

    it has rebuttles on the above posted passages. 

    here's a small exserpt from the article above:

    Episcopal priest Dr. Tom Horner has written that the Gospels imply in two places that Jesus' attitude toward lesbians and gays would not have been hostile. (Jonathan Loved David, p. 122) The first is found in the story of Jesus healing the Centurion's servant. (Matthew 8:5-13) The word used for the servant is “pais,” which in the Greek culture referred to a younger lover of an older, more powerful or educated man. Clearly, the story demonstrates an unusually intense love, and Jesus' response was wholly positive.


    Answer by Anonymous at 12:39 AM on Nov. 9, 2008

  • note on Sodom story:

    It should be noted that not all of the men of Sodom could have been homosexual or there would have been no need to destroy them. If they had all been homosexuals, they would have all died off leaving no heirs. Quite likely, they were a mixed group of evil men attempting to be abusive to people who were different. Ironically, lesbian and gay people are often the victim of that same sin.

    Answer by Anonymous at 12:41 AM on Nov. 9, 2008

  • and some more:

    Nowhere does the Bible actually address the idea of persons being lesbian or gay. The statements are, without exception, directed to certain homosexual acts. Early writers had no understanding of homosexuality as a psychosexual orientation. That truth is a relatively recent discovery. The biblical authors were referring to homosexual acts performed by persons they assumed were heterosexuals.

    Answer by Anonymous at 12:41 AM on Nov. 9, 2008

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