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3 Bumps

Does the Bible contradict itself?

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lovinangels

Asked by lovinangels at 12:02 AM on Jan. 2, 2011 in Religious Debate

Level 39 (112,638 Credits)
Answers (36)
  • How specifically? Can you give a little more detail to your question?
    sweetpea1217

    Answer by sweetpea1217 at 12:03 AM on Jan. 2, 2011

  • I honestly think it does. One of the reasons I no longer believe but not the only reason.
    mommy_of_two388

    Answer by mommy_of_two388 at 12:03 AM on Jan. 2, 2011

  • I kept it general for a reason. I just want to see what people's gut reaction is to the question.
    lovinangels

    Comment by lovinangels (original poster) at 12:04 AM on Jan. 2, 2011

  • I don't see how the bible would contradict itself.
    sweetpea1217

    Answer by sweetpea1217 at 12:06 AM on Jan. 2, 2011

  • WAR OR PEACE

    EXO 15:3 The LORD is a man of war: the LORD is his name.

    ROM 15:33 Now the God of peace be with you all. Amen
    mommy_of_two388

    Answer by mommy_of_two388 at 12:12 AM on Jan. 2, 2011

  • The sins of the father

    ISA 14:21 Prepare slaughter for his children for the iniquity of their fathers; that they do not rise, nor possess the land, nor fill the face of the world with cities.

    DEU 24:16 The fathers shall not be put to death for the children, neither shall the children be put to death for the fathers: every man shall be put to death for his own sin
    mommy_of_two388

    Answer by mommy_of_two388 at 12:12 AM on Jan. 2, 2011

  • Well, my gut reaction is, No it doesn't because "There is a time for everything under Heaven".
    BUTTERCUP777

    Answer by BUTTERCUP777 at 12:38 AM on Jan. 2, 2011

  • No, the Bible does not contradict itself at all. There are specific reasons for the different wars in the Bible. Wars were brought about against those who were not following God's laws. God is love and promises to bring about a world of peace, but he will have to bring about destruction of wickedness before that can occur.
    KrazyChick

    Answer by KrazyChick at 12:44 AM on Jan. 2, 2011

  • No ... those who charge it as such do not understand the context in which they read.

    (that's the short answer)
    -Eilish-

    Answer by -Eilish- at 1:06 AM on Jan. 2, 2011

  • Only if you take it too literally and disregard the contexts, if you forget that the books weren't all written by the same person at the same time in regard to the same events or even same issues/for the same people/etc. Its all about the complete context - in the text itself, in the history, in the tradition, etc, etc. And then you have to understand what is meant literally and what isn't.....
    bandgeek521

    Answer by bandgeek521 at 1:18 AM on Jan. 2, 2011

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