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Mary's lineage?

Is there any place in the bible were one can find a geneology for Mary, mother of Jesus?

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Asked by Koukla12905 at 10:39 AM on Jan. 21, 2011 in Religion & Beliefs

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Answers (9)
  • Good question.

    Answer by dancer at 10:41 AM on Jan. 21, 2011

  • The genealogy in Matt. 1:1f is traced through Joseph, Jesus’ legal (though not natural) father, and it establishes His claim and right to the throne of David (v. 6). The genealogy in Luke 3:23-38 is evidently that of Mary, though some believe it is also Joseph’s, by assuming that Matthan (Matt 1:15) and Matthat (Luke 3:24) were the same person and Jacob (Matt 1:16) and Eli (Luke 3:23) were brothers (one being Joseph’s father and the other his uncle).

    Answer by IhartU at 10:50 AM on Jan. 21, 2011

  • There are 2 different lines given for Jesus, one in Matthew (Matthew 1:8) and one in Luke (Luke 3:23), it is believed that one is Joseph's lineage and one is Mary's. I don't know which is which though. They both list a different man as the father of Joseph, but I've been told one means his father in law, even though it doesn't specifally say so.

    Answer by mybella81 at 10:57 AM on Jan. 21, 2011

  • Thank you ladies... I looked up the ones you gave me, and it looks as though both Matthew and Luke give Joseph's line and not Mary's. Perhaps it depends on the version as well.

    Comment by Koukla12905 (original poster) at 11:05 AM on Jan. 21, 2011


    Mary was a direct descendant of King David which gave Jesus the right to ascend the Jewish throne, both through Mary and through adoption by his foster father, Joseph. Mary’s genealogy is supplied in Luke 3:23-38 . Dr. Henry Morris explains the genealogy in Luke:

    “Joseph was clearly the son of Jacob (Matthew 1:16, so this verse [Luke 3:23 - says “son of Heli”] should be understood to mean “son-in-law of Heli.” Thus, the genealogy of Christ in Luke is actually the genealogy of Mary, while Matthew gives that of Joseph. Actually, the word “son” is not in the original, so it would be legitimate to supply either “son” or “son-in-law” in this context. Since Matthew and Luke clearly record much common material, it is certain that neither one could unknowingly incorporate such a flagrant apparent mistake as the wrong genealogy in his record.

    Answer by Shaneagle777 at 9:15 PM on Jan. 21, 2011

  • As it is, however, the two genealogies show that both parents were descendants of David—Joseph through Solomon (Matthew 1:7-15), thus inheriting the legal right to the throne of David, and Mary through Nathan (Luke 3:23-31), her line thus carrying the seed of David, since Solomon’s line had been refused the throne because of Jechoniah’s sin” [Dr. Henry M. Morris, The Defender’s Study Bible, note for Luke 3:23 (Iowa Falls, Iowa: World Publishing, Inc., 1995).].

    Answer by Shaneagle777 at 9:15 PM on Jan. 21, 2011

  • Shaneagle777

    Answer by Shaneagle777 at 9:17 PM on Jan. 21, 2011

  • Thank you for the references, but there are still two things I don't get:

    1) why would Luke say "Joseph, son of Heli" when he meant "son-in-law of Heli", when the words "in-law" are mentioned elsewhere in the bible? If they had used them before, why not use them in this case and make it more clear?

    2) If they omitted the words "in-law" when refering to Joseph as Heli's son, how do we know they didn't omit them elsewhere from this geneology? That could potentially make it so Mary isn't actually directly related to David's line.

    Comment by Koukla12905 (original poster) at 8:01 AM on Jan. 22, 2011

  • Your question #1 Paragraph 5

    Your question #2 Paragraph 6



    Answer by 2tinyhineys at 11:31 AM on Jan. 22, 2011

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