According to the Jewish Bible, one of the requirements for the messiah is that he must be a descendant of King David. All of the major Messianic prophecies indicate this (Ezekiel 34:23, 37:21-28; Isaiah 11:1-9; Jeremiah 23:5, 30:7-10, 33:14-16; and Hosea 3:4-5).
In the gospel of Matthew, the genealogy of Joseph, who was the husband of Mary, is traced back to King David. Therefore, since the genealogy as recorded in Matthew only traces Joseph back to King David, but never connects Joseph as the father of Jesus, it is clear that Jesus has no established genealogical record going back to King David.
Jesus failed to fulfill any of the major messianic prophecies; he was never anointed as King, he never ruled Israel, and the world was certainly not perfected in his time. In addition, he was not preceded by the return of the prophet Elijah (Malachi 4:5). Finally, he was disqualified from ever being a messianic candidate due to his lack of the necessary family background.
So how exactly can you say Jesus is the Messiah if he clearly dosn't fit the criteria for the Jewish Messiah?
Answer by pam19 at 4:49 PM on Jan. 21, 2011
Answer by collier5 at 5:23 PM on Jan. 21, 2011
Answer by Mama2JoshKatie at 4:41 PM on Jan. 21, 2011
Answer by pam19 at 5:01 PM on Jan. 21, 2011
Answer by 2tinyhineys at 7:31 PM on Jan. 21, 2011
Answer by RyansMom001 at 7:23 PM on Jan. 21, 2011
The Jews were suppose to reject Jesus, so is this a trick question? The question for me is "How could He NOT be the Messiah?"
Answer by 2tinyhineys at 7:26 PM on Jan. 21, 2011
Answer by popzaroo at 10:27 PM on Jan. 22, 2011
Answer by soyousay at 4:34 PM on Jan. 21, 2011
Answer by tiddliwinks at 4:59 PM on Jan. 21, 2011