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Is a legal document pertaining to property still valid if one of the parties mentioned in the said agreement was not present at the time of signing

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Anonymous

Asked by Anonymous at 1:46 PM on Feb. 1, 2011 in Just for Fun

Answers (2)
  • When we had to sign the trust for our house, stating that once my fil passed the house would be in my husbands name, I had to sign it. Even though it really had nothing to do with me except that I'm his wife. The document wasn't legal until my fil, my dh, and I signed it. And it had to be done in front of the lawyer.
    BabyBugsmama

    Answer by BabyBugsmama at 1:49 PM on Feb. 1, 2011

  • We sold a house in a different state, so the closing was done by Fed-ex. The buyer signed their docs in front of a notary public, and we then signed the same docs in front of another notary the next day.
    anng.atlanta

    Answer by anng.atlanta at 1:54 PM on Feb. 1, 2011

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