So an angel was sent to John and revealed what is to come ("what must soon take place") so therefore it was a vision correct? Anyway, question is that it was nothing more than vision that one man claimed was sent to him by God about the next coming of Jesus and also that the way it is written seems more present tense (of their time of course not ours) rather than deep down in the future. This is how I have always perceived it no matter how many times I have read it. Where do the other views come from or is it just how others see it?Answer Question
Answer by vbruno at 9:37 PM on Mar. 19, 2011
Answer by dustbunny at 9:47 PM on Mar. 19, 2011
Answer by Tracys2 at 9:50 PM on Mar. 19, 2011
Answer by saphire_eyes802 at 9:56 PM on Mar. 19, 2011
Answer by shivasgirl at 2:09 AM on Mar. 20, 2011
I've always wondering why it's okay for some people to do divination through dream interpretation in the bible when it's considered 'socery', 'witchcraft' and a sin.
Perhaps John had a little too much wine before bed and you people are all up in odds trying to interpret his drunken hallucination.
Answer by IhartU at 9:35 AM on Mar. 20, 2011
Answer by witchqueen at 1:09 PM on Mar. 20, 2011