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PSALM 82:1 I am once again confused

Is it true that the ancient Hebrews, before the bible was written, were described as Henotheism belief? This meaning that they didn't deny the existence of other gods but they worshiped a "local" god? I also read that it changed when Moses went up and came back with the ten commandments so that is why it states "thou shall not have no other gods before me". Now in Psalm 82 it says: "God presides in the great assembly; he gives judgment among the "gods"?

I see here that the bible again refers to other gods. So what does this all mean? Is it still believed that there are other gods? I am of course not educated in the ancient hebrew faith so that is why I am trying to understand

Answer Question

Asked by jujubean1979200 at 7:10 PM on Mar. 21, 2011 in Religion & Beliefs

Level 23 (15,456 Credits)
Answers (15)
  • People do worship other "gods"...people look at Buddha as a god, etc...It is just saying that God is the ultimate and only TRUE God and gives the judgement to these "gods"..these other "gods" are just people. They are not gods except in the manner that other humans worship them. I hope that makes sense.

    Answer by calliesmommie at 7:17 PM on Mar. 21, 2011

  • I guess. It explains what people believe now but back then it wasn't so according to my research. The ancient people believed other gods existed meaning actual gods not idolized people. This holds true in PSalm that I have quoted.

    Comment by jujubean1979200 (original poster) at 7:19 PM on Mar. 21, 2011

  • of course your confused, trying to make sense out of the new Testament? good luck! that book contradicts itself so badly amongst other things.

    Answer by Anonymous at 7:20 PM on Mar. 21, 2011

  • The OT not the NT. Psalms is not in the NT

    Comment by jujubean1979200 (original poster) at 7:21 PM on Mar. 21, 2011

  • Some early sects of Christianity were henotheistic. Some denominations of Christianity are technically henotheistic NOW, if they are non-trinitarian, but believe in the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit as separate beings. I read some things that suggest pantheistic and polytheistic views may have been prevalent as well (which is no surprise to me).

    Answer by pam19 at 7:23 PM on Mar. 21, 2011

  • people look at Buddha as a god, etc


    FYI: The Buddha was a human being, not a God. That's a common misconception. :-)

    Answer by pam19 at 7:24 PM on Mar. 21, 2011

  • I looked at that passage in a translation bible The Message
    The word gods is judges which is also the word elyohim which is where we get the word GOD there are multiple used of this hebrew word and it makes it vital to read the passage in context to understand who Asaph was refering to ( yes it was a psalm written by Asaph not David.

    Answer by Shaneagle777 at 8:24 PM on Mar. 21, 2011

  • I have The Message too but I was trying to understand the translation because it is mentioned in other places and given the history I was curious. Thanks :)

    Comment by jujubean1979200 (original poster) at 8:31 PM on Mar. 21, 2011

  • Ah ok your welcome :-)

    Answer by Shaneagle777 at 10:17 PM on Mar. 21, 2011

  • Yeah, as Shaneagle said, "gods" means judges here. They were called gods because they represented God in executing judgment. In Jn.10:34-36, Jesus used this passage to defend his claims to be God. His argument was; if God would call mere men gods, why was it blasphemous for him, the Son of God, to declare himself equal with God? The term in no way means that mere humans are potentially gods, but only that they can become God's representatives with power and authority to carry out justice.

    Answer by popzaroo at 11:37 PM on Mar. 21, 2011

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