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2 Bumps

The Immaculate Conception!!

So I was reading up on it since my parents and so on are Roman catholic and I myself hated going to the church and decided perhaps I should educate myself on why we believe this and what exactly it is we believe. Well, when I found out that little miss Mary was protected by god from the very beginning to be sinless and pure so that she could give birth to Jesus later on down the road my mouth dropped. Now, I am a very open minded person but something strikes me as unfair and just plain strange in this thinking.

Wasn't the messiah to be born of noble blood and to rule the land as King? He wasn't born of noble blood because that was on Joseph's side right? How can god make Mary sinless yet we are all doomed? What am I missing?

 
jujubean1979200

Asked by jujubean1979200 at 7:29 AM on Apr. 6, 2011 in Religious Debate

Level 23 (15,456 Credits)
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Answers (36)
  • I'm not sooo into religion as far as my studies go, but a wild guess would be this...the reason we're all doomed has more to do with the imperfections of Adam and Eve rather than Mary and Jesus.
    yesmaam

    Answer by yesmaam at 7:47 AM on Apr. 6, 2011

  • Being a virgin does NOT make Mary sinless. I have no idea where people get that idea, but then I'm not Catholic. She was human like the rest of us after all. If you really look into the people of the Bible, you find that it doesn't take perfection to gain God's favor. It is usually a willing heart and a strong spirit that does that.

    And we aren't "doomed." God has provided a way for his children. If we are all "doomed" we wouldn't have any choice or chance.
    asmcbride

    Answer by asmcbride at 10:21 AM on Apr. 6, 2011

  • Jesus was born of noble blood. Luke 1:32,33 reads..He sahll be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David: And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end. If you trace the family tree, you'll find that the noble blood was on Mary's side, not Joseph's. I don't recall reading in Scripture where it says Mary was completely sinless, but that she found favor with God. Would you mind giving me a reference so I can look it up? Mary was impregnated without having sex because Jesus had to be free from the sinful nature passed on to all other human beings by Adam. Because he was born of a woman, he was a human being; but because he was the Son of God, he was born without any trace of human sin. So he was both fully human and fully divine.

    popzaroo

    Answer by popzaroo at 10:40 AM on Apr. 6, 2011

  • Matthew establishes that Jesus was a legal descendant of David by tracing the genealogy of Joseph, who was from the house of David. Although Jesus was conceived by the Holy Spirit, he was still formally registered as Joseph's son and legally a son of David. Luke's genealogy traces the lineage of Jesus through the males in Mary's line (she was also from the Davidic line). Listing females in genealogy was unusual. It was Jewish custom to trace the paternal line.
    According to ancient records, there's a gap in the governorship between 4 B.C. and A.D. 1, the period between Varus and Gaius Caesar. So it's possible that the census spanned the period from Varus to Quirinius and was referred to by the name of the one who completed it, which would've been sometime in the period immediately following Herod's death.
    popzaroo

    Answer by popzaroo at 11:32 PM on Apr. 6, 2011

  • The whole story, recycled as it is from other myths, is one of those strange tales that I could never accept. God impregnates a virgin (immaculately, too!) with himself? I wonder if baby God (excuse me--Baby Jesus) was wise and all-knowing from birth, and had to pretend to go through all of the developmental stages of infancy and toddler-hood? Isn't it bizarre to think that he had to be breastfed, and have his diaper changed (or whatever version of infant hygiene was used back then).  Strange, strange stuff, to contemplate. . .

    jsbenkert

    Answer by jsbenkert at 9:04 AM on Apr. 6, 2011

  • she's may have been a virgin, but the rest of his ancestors were not! read up on the lineage of David/Christ, and you will find a whole cast of 'characters' that would make some of us blush, if not leave you in shock.
    dullscissors

    Answer by dullscissors at 9:15 AM on Apr. 6, 2011

  • Mary was impregnated without having sex because Jesus had to be free from the sinful nature passed on to all other human beings by Adam. Because he was born of a woman, he was a human being; but because he was the Son of God, he was born without any trace of human sin. So he was both fully human and fully divine.


    Answer by popzaroo 11 minutes ago

    ************************************
    ..without having sex because he had to be sinless....SO, the men who wrote that , after the fact, assumed that sex was sinful? See, that s evidence that the Bible (new Testament) was written by men with an agenda, not men who were THERE and knew what they were talkin about...because they obviously did not know what they were talking about. And, in all the churches I have attended, Jesus was thought to be the SON of God, not God. And actually, men wrote that he was the Son of God and how do we know if they were telling the truth?
    minnesotanice

    Answer by minnesotanice at 10:57 AM on Apr. 6, 2011

  • CONT: Mary was not a virgin...because she did get pregnant , with a man,Joseph. THAT s a realistic way to look at it,In my opinion. But people a few hundred years later interpreted hers as a 'virgin birth'.....it was a myth. THIS is MY opinion. I am not trying to be mean, just realistic.
    minnesotanice

    Answer by minnesotanice at 10:59 AM on Apr. 6, 2011

  • You have to remember " virgin " back then also means... Definition of VIRGIN
    1a : an unmarried woman devoted to religion
    b capitalized : virgo
    2a : an absolutely chaste young woman
    b : an unmarried girl or woman
    3capitalized : virgin mary
    4a : a person who has not had sexual intercourse
    b : a person who is inexperienced in a usually specified sphere of activity

    Most likely use of the word in this case would be 1a. Also I request the exact passage that traces Mary's lineage to David. The two I found are for Joseph who we all know isn't technically the father.
    2autisticsmom

    Answer by 2autisticsmom at 2:27 PM on Apr. 6, 2011

  • As I'm very tired after a hard day delivering mail and also getting chased by a blind old dog, that tried to bite me, in the process flipped backwards over a big round flower planter. ( The old body still knows what to do did a perfect roll and landed on my feet) I will be lazy and give you a link to read it explains it. http://www.catholic.com/library/Immaculate_Conception_and_Assum.asp

    daps

    Answer by daps at 6:16 PM on Apr. 6, 2011

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