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Another Bible Question for all.

Just so you know I love the ancient writings and Stories. So here goes. If the oldest copy of Homers work The Odyssey and Iliad are from the 5th -6th century, but the earliest copy of the Bible is from around the 3rd? Why do we believe that the Homers work is the same after so many years, but not the Bible? That also goes for All the Stories of the Greek and Roman Gods. side question on that one, How do we know that Hera wasn't the head God and Zeus was just her lackey? No disrespect meant just wondering what others thought.


Asked by daps at 4:57 PM on Apr. 26, 2011 in Religious Debate

Level 23 (18,153 Credits)
This question is closed.
Answers (9)
  • I don't believe it matters whether or not it's the same after centuries of writing and editing. The difference between Homer's Odyssey and the Holy Bible is that no one is asked to take the Odyssey to heart and believe it to be true, and to worship the author of it with unquestioning faith.  No one is being told that they will go to hell if they don't believe in the Odyssey.  As far as I know, no one has started wars over Homer's Odyssey or tried to make public policy over what's written within its pages. 


    Answer by jsbenkert at 7:32 PM on Apr. 26, 2011

  • There's no political gain in rewriting either of those volumes. On the other hand, we have evidence of when other books have been rewritten, like the bible. In Egypt, Akhenaten was so devoted to a single god, he outlawed all the others, had everything changed overnight, essentially, from polytheism to monotheism. It lasted until he died, at which time everyone went back to worshiping what they actually believed instead of what they had to say in public to stay alive. There are records of all those changes. Just as there are records of all the books that have been alternately included then discarded from the bible, as well as records of intentional misinterpretations by various religious leaders along the way. People aren't just inventing from whole cloth, "oh they changed the bible." They say it because there is proof of it.

    Answer by NotPanicking at 11:45 PM on Apr. 26, 2011

  • I personally believe the bible is now different than it was in the 3rd century because of the Council of Nicaea. In case anyone doesn't know what this it, it was when a council of Christian Bishops gathered to make a uniform Christian doctrine. It actually was edited by these bishops in order to attain consensus. During this council is when they determined how to calculate the date of Easter and settled on what they believed the relationship was between Jesus and God. I just can't see the bible remaining intact after something like this.


    Answer by Beatlenutmommy at 5:06 PM on Apr. 26, 2011

  • I agree with Beatlenutmommy. I also believe that when it was decided of what went in and out made the change. It is noted in history I believe from what I have studied that in fact other faiths have changed over time. The bible or the belief in such is the only one I have heard that denies it

    Answer by jujubean1979200 at 5:11 PM on Apr. 26, 2011

  • Well, anything translated isn't going to be exactly the same, so none of those are exactly the same as they were then and it depends how much of the originals or oldest versions they have for comparison. The Bible is a compilation of many works--different authors and at different times. And some were left out either because they were not seen as 'God's word' or they didn't match up to what was 'approved' depending on how you see it. The discovery of the Nag Hammadi Library in 1945, Dead Seas Scrolls, Gabriel's Revelation, & other archaeological finds are going to influence how we see those works now. Even the discovery of a new fragment of text tomorrow could change our perception of how a word was intended to be translated or what a verse meant, if it was a similar verse but worded differently. I think it's because there are many translations and potential interpretations of the Bible, & that it's a compilation of many works.

    Answer by pam19 at 5:43 PM on Apr. 26, 2011

  • The Bible doesn't just contain the history of God/Jesus, it contains the history of nations. It is believable to me because everything aligns perfectly. Many people died for having faith in what they saw with their OWN eyes.

    Answer by Renee3K at 8:02 PM on Apr. 26, 2011

  • The main difference *I* see between the Odyssey and Iliad, etc., are known and excepted to be MYTHS, while there are many many many many too many who still see the bible as historical fact!

    Answer by MamaK88 at 2:28 PM on Apr. 27, 2011

  • Interesting question. If you've learned another language, then you know that there are always some phrases and sentiments that just don't translate; even with the most skilled and inspired linguists doing the work...hopefully whatever is "lost in translation" is minimal.

    Answer by Dkhilly at 5:17 PM on Apr. 26, 2011

  • Um so the Torah and Koran also were changed for the same reasons? After all, all three have the same begining. Honestly I forgot about the the other two when I wrote this. Probably because they are intertwined.


    Comment by daps (original poster) at 5:54 AM on Apr. 27, 2011