Ok first off if you were able to read the untranslated version which would be more true to the word of god sue to it not losing or having any thing changed in translation... Would you read that or go on to read the translated version?
Second question What do you think of the fact that The translated version of the bible says this...
New American Standard Bible (NASB)
22 (A)You shall not lie with a male as [a]one lies with a female; it is an abomination.
While the untranslated version says this to the same verse...
You shall not lie with a male before lying with a woman.
Then it goes on to speak about how it defiles the woman and causes harm to her in later verses.
Does this not show a severe mistranslated and possibly even false condemtion of an entire group of people?
Answer by truthteller0722 at 4:23 AM on Jun. 9, 2011
Answer by Michigan-Mom74 at 4:27 AM on Jun. 9, 2011
Answer by NotPanicking at 4:36 AM on Jun. 9, 2011
Answer by sahmamax2 at 7:14 AM on Jun. 9, 2011
Answer by sahmamax2 at 7:17 AM on Jun. 9, 2011
Answer by bandgeek521 at 8:19 AM on Jun. 9, 2011
"You shall not lie with a male before lying with a woman."
Wow ... I had not seen that particular "untranslated" version of that verse. Interesting. To me, that says it's okay if you have been with a woman FIRST.
"there seems to be a serious reluctance amongst a subset of Christians to reject any translation besides the one they agree with."
So VERY true! I know several who say that the ONLY correct version is the KJV. I will ask them point blank do they HONESTLY believe that people in the Middle East in Biblical times spoke in the KING'S ENGLISH!!
Answer by SpiritedWitch at 8:26 AM on Jun. 9, 2011