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OK BIBLE QUESTION FOR ALL! (For non Christians this is a more if you believed in the bible hypothetical question,,,)

Ok first off if you were able to read the untranslated version which would be more true to the word of god sue to it not losing or having any thing changed in translation... Would you read that or go on to read the translated version?

Second question What do you think of the fact that The translated version of the bible says this...
Leviticus 18:22
New American Standard Bible (NASB)

22 (A)You shall not lie with a male as [a]one lies with a female; it is an abomination.

While the untranslated version says this to the same verse...

You shall not lie with a male before lying with a woman.

Then it goes on to speak about how it defiles the woman and causes harm to her in later verses.

Does this not show a severe mistranslated and possibly even false condemtion of an entire group of people?

Answer Question
 
hot-mama86

Asked by hot-mama86 at 3:55 AM on Jun. 9, 2011 in Religious Debate

Level 26 (29,263 Credits)
Answers (28)
  • u r confusing here........I want to give my honest answer as I always do but your question is rather unclear. To be clear I am bisexual (and have identified as such publicly since I turned 18 at least), I will be 34 in Sept. I do not identify with any religion. I am so confused by this.......in my own modern translaton this is saying that "a person should not have relations with a male as they would a female". But that really confuses me because I have read the bible cover to cover once(and studied it throughout my early life). I suppose my main question here is ......are these questions directed at males or females? Being a female myself, and I have layed with both sexes. I do not understand, but I would like to.
    truthteller0722

    Answer by truthteller0722 at 4:23 AM on Jun. 9, 2011

  • The bible has been interpreted so many different ways, its hard to know what the orignal verse was anyway and who or what it was directed too
    Michigan-Mom74

    Answer by Michigan-Mom74 at 4:27 AM on Jun. 9, 2011

  • Back then alot of the times males would mean both males and females. To be honest though there os no way to know for sure how this is using it. That does make it confusing. Most biblical scholars will say it means both so for arguments sake we will go off of that for this question.
    hot-mama86

    Comment by hot-mama86 (original poster) at 4:30 AM on Jun. 9, 2011

  • The bible has been interpreted so many different ways, its hard to know what the orignal verse was anyway and who or what it was directed too

    There are bibles that have not been translated and are directly copied word for word from the original though they are hard to come by some even have the missing books. Problem is you have to be able to read hebrew and greek.
    hot-mama86

    Comment by hot-mama86 (original poster) at 4:32 AM on Jun. 9, 2011

  • I don't use any one version/translation. I have 3 of them, and then I know a few of you if I want a deeper look at something, I can bug you for the original Hebrew/Greek. The problem with any translation, even the ones sourced from the originals, is they lack the historical context. Look at a common one we see thrown around here, about dressing as a man or woman, except when it was written, nobody wore pants. Yet, people read that text and interpret it to mean, literally, women can't wear pants.

    Now, with the specific question you're referencing, the point is moot, because that was about someone wanting people to tell her what she wanted to hear, not an actual question. But in the bigger picture, yes, there seems to be a serious reluctance amongst a subset of Christians to reject any translation besides the one they agree with. Makes it easier to always be right that way, I'm sure.
    NotPanicking

    Answer by NotPanicking at 4:36 AM on Jun. 9, 2011

  • LMAO so true NP. Great points thanks. If you did want the texts ever let me know when I get my comp back in two weeks I'll be more then happy to send them to you. You are right though I've noticed alot that people take every thing literal most the time, and they don't pay attention when there is lack of historical proof.
    hot-mama86

    Comment by hot-mama86 (original poster) at 4:40 AM on Jun. 9, 2011

  • "But in the bigger picture, yes, there seems to be a serious reluctance amongst a subset of Christians to reject any translation besides the one they agree with. Makes it easier to always be right that way, I'm sure. "

    YUP. ITA. Couldn't have said it better.
    sahmamax2

    Answer by sahmamax2 at 7:14 AM on Jun. 9, 2011

  • Of course it shows mistranslation. What ISN'T mistranslated in the bible by each individual person?! Even christians argue amongst themselves as to correct translations.
    I don't give the bible anymore credence than I would any other book.
    sahmamax2

    Answer by sahmamax2 at 7:17 AM on Jun. 9, 2011

  • I believe that it's important not just to read the context in the actual text, but to look at the context in terms of history, tradition, etc as well. I know I've seen someone explain the context for that verse before, though I can't really remember the explanation off the top of my head, but I agree with you that I don't believe it is intended to speak towards homosexuality or to be used to marginalize or condemn homosexuals.
    bandgeek521

    Answer by bandgeek521 at 8:19 AM on Jun. 9, 2011

  • "You shall not lie with a male before lying with a woman.
    Wow ... I had not seen that particular "untranslated" version of that verse. Interesting. To me, that says it's okay if you have been with a woman FIRST. 


    "there seems to be a serious reluctance amongst a subset of Christians to reject any translation besides the one they agree with."
    So VERY true! I know several who say that the ONLY correct version is the KJV. I will ask them point blank do they HONESTLY believe that people in the Middle East in Biblical times spoke in the KING'S ENGLISH!! 

    SpiritedWitch

    Answer by SpiritedWitch at 8:26 AM on Jun. 9, 2011

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