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If campaign donations are free speech...?

Why don't donors have to be accountable for that speech?

If campaign donations are a form of free speech, why should groups buying political ads not have to disclose the members of those groups?

Most of us agree that we are entitled to free speech and it's resulting consequences, but not when it comes to political campaigns?

(It's also interesting that some of us have more "free speech" than others).

Answer Question

Asked by UpSheRises at 4:09 PM on Jun. 13, 2011 in Politics & Current Events

Level 31 (48,798 Credits)
Answers (5)
  • Thank McCain/Feingold.

    Answer by Carpy at 7:41 PM on Jun. 13, 2011

  • On campaign finance, the court relaxed some restrictions it had upheld in 2003, allowing corporations and unions to get back into election campaigning in a way they have not been able to since the McCain-Feingold law took effect five years ago.

    This opens up a huge can of worms.

    Answer by itsmesteph11 at 9:44 PM on Jun. 13, 2011

  • lol too much like rite

    Answer by mekarevell at 10:15 PM on Jun. 13, 2011

  • lol too much like rite

    Answer by mekarevell 3 minutes ago

    WTH does that mean?


    Comment by UpSheRises (original poster) at 10:19 PM on Jun. 13, 2011

  • I always wondered that myself. Some of us have way more free speech than others

    Answer by adnilm at 8:25 AM on Jun. 14, 2011

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