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In the bible (NIV) it says "anyone who divorces his wife,...

except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to become an adulteress and anyone who marries the divorced woman commits adultery" (Mathew chapter 5 verse 32)

what do you think of that and WHY would that be?
doesn't seem very godly, was this another example of something being lost in translation?


Asked by lizzybee44 at 1:22 AM on Jun. 21, 2011 in Religion & Beliefs

Level 19 (7,681 Credits)
This question is closed.
Answers (9)
  • I don't think this verse is saying that a woman is an adulteress if her husband leaves her. I think it is meant to show men what position they were putting their wives in by leaving them. In that day and time, women did not have the option to work and support themselves without a husband. If a man left his wife, she had no choice but to remarry (or possibly prostitution) in order to take care of herself. The man left her with no choice other than adultery if he deserted her. I think this is pointing out the sin of the man here and not demeaning the woman.

    Answer by asmcbride at 9:36 AM on Jun. 21, 2011

  • Remember that the Bible was written over 2000 years ago in the MIddle East, and is of course influenced by the culture there. Women were second class citizens (as they are in so many Middle Eastern countries today), so a woman whose husband left her became unfit for marriage.


    Answer by sweetpotato418 at 6:30 AM on Jun. 21, 2011

  • This is one where you have go much deeper. in another part Christ said that the Divorce laws in the OT was allowed by God because of the hard heartiness of the men. They would see another young pretty thing and want them, instead of their wife, it gave them an out. Also this verse is about men not women. Men need to nurture their wives love them until death, not grow weary and look else where. When they basically throw their wives away because things get hard or the "love is no longer there" they are taking the easy road. Instead of working on the relationship. Now it a different place He does say that if a women is basically abused she should leave her husband. For the marriage vows have been broken by the husband. It all falls on the man to protect his wife from evil, either by his own hands or others. It falls to the wife to try to help her husband from steering away from the chosen path.

    Answer by daps at 6:53 AM on Jun. 21, 2011

  • i know he forgives but im asking WHY would a woman who is left by her husband be an adulteress, she didn't do anything wrong

    Comment by lizzybee44 (original poster) at 1:29 AM on Jun. 21, 2011

  • hmm maybe it refers back to the phrase till death do us part....dont really sure tho

    Answer by Anonymous at 1:42 AM on Jun. 21, 2011

  • I believe it means marriage was meant to last. So if a man leaves his wife, he is making her an adulteress because she was only intended to sleep with her husband.

    Answer by marybeth927 at 1:50 AM on Jun. 21, 2011

  • I never liked this verse and is one of the problems I have with the belief system too. It is judgmental and every situation is different. It doesn't mean they should be condemn to hell

    Answer by jujubean1979200 at 8:12 AM on Jun. 21, 2011

  • Probably because the guy who wrote it was pissed off at his wife...

    Answer by MrsMWF at 9:43 AM on Jun. 21, 2011

  • I think it had more to do with protecting the woman and/or her reputation back in those days, and not really so much to do with something God had commanded, if that makes sense.

    Answer by bandgeek521 at 10:39 AM on Jun. 21, 2011