It's something that has confused me a little. I saw it brought up in another post but didn't want to hijack it so I'm asking on my own.
If we were all born with sin because of Adam and Eve, how can anyone claim Jesus to be born without sin, especially if he was born of a human woman? Her blood had to course through his veins to sustain his life as a human so how can he escape being born without sin??
And just to be clear....I am an Atheist, I'm asking an honest question that I don't understand, I am NOT trying to start an argument. I am merely curious.
Answer by Anonymous at 9:39 PM on Dec. 15, 2008
Answer by Anonymous at 9:41 PM on Dec. 15, 2008
Answer by Anonymous at 9:44 PM on Dec. 15, 2008
Answer by ShutterBug77 at 9:47 PM on Dec. 15, 2008
Mary was not born without sin, PART 1
“If a woman conceives, and bears a male child, then she shall be unclean seven days; . . . And when the days of her purifying are completed, . . . she shall bring to the priest at the door of the tent of meeting a lamb . . . And if she cannot afford a lamb, then she shall take two turtledoves or two young pigeons, one for a burnt offering and the other for a sin offering; and the priest shall make atonement for her, and she shall be clean.” (Lev. 12:2, 6, 8)
Answer by lisarose45 at 9:56 PM on Dec. 15, 2008
Mary PART 2
“And when the time came for their purification according to the law of Moses, they [Joseph and Mary] brought him [Jesus] up to Jerusalem to present him to the Lord . . . and to offer a sacrifice according to what is said in the law of the Lord, ‘a pair of turtledoves, or two young pigeons [one as a burnt offering, the other as a sin offering for Mary].’”—Luke 2:22, 24.
Answer by lisarose45 at 9:57 PM on Dec. 15, 2008
Answer by Anonymous at 11:35 PM on Dec. 15, 2008
Answer by heavenschild99 at 11:41 PM on Dec. 15, 2008
Answer by kaycee14 at 12:09 AM on Dec. 16, 2008
Answer by kaycee14 at 12:18 AM on Dec. 16, 2008
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