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A question about Jesus being born without sin..

It's something that has confused me a little. I saw it brought up in another post but didn't want to hijack it so I'm asking on my own.
If we were all born with sin because of Adam and Eve, how can anyone claim Jesus to be born without sin, especially if he was born of a human woman? Her blood had to course through his veins to sustain his life as a human so how can he escape being born without sin??
And just to be clear....I am an Atheist, I'm asking an honest question that I don't understand, I am NOT trying to start an argument. I am merely curious.

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Asked by ShutterBug77 at 9:36 PM on Dec. 15, 2008 in Religion & Beliefs

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Answers (26)
  • the answer you will get is that because he is the son of god, he didn't have sin.

    Answer by Anonymous at 9:39 PM on Dec. 15, 2008

  • He was perfect from the start, hard to understand but it's true. He was always and will always be perfect and w/out sin.

    Answer by Anonymous at 9:41 PM on Dec. 15, 2008

  • Not only was Jesus concieved and born without sin, his mother was concieved and born without sin.

    Answer by Anonymous at 9:44 PM on Dec. 15, 2008

  • Where the heck does it say that Mary was concieved and born without sin?? I don't remember ever hearing that.

    Answer by ShutterBug77 at 9:47 PM on Dec. 15, 2008

  • Mary was not born without sin, PART 1

    “If a woman conceives, and bears a male child, then she shall be unclean seven days; . . . And when the days of her purifying are completed, . . . she shall bring to the priest at the door of the tent of meeting a lamb . . . And if she cannot afford a lamb, then she shall take two turtledoves or two young pigeons, one for a burnt offering and the other for a sin offering; and the priest shall make atonement for her, and she shall be clean.” (Lev. 12:2, 6, 8)


    Answer by lisarose45 at 9:56 PM on Dec. 15, 2008

  • Mary PART 2

    “And when the time came for their purification according to the law of Moses, they [Joseph and Mary] brought him [Jesus] up to Jerusalem to present him to the Lord . . . and to offer a sacrifice according to what is said in the law of the Lord, ‘a pair of turtledoves, or two young pigeons [one as a burnt offering, the other as a sin offering for Mary].’”—Luke 2:22, 24.


    Answer by lisarose45 at 9:57 PM on Dec. 15, 2008

  • Great question, Shutterbug77. Yet another paradox of the BIble.

    Answer by Anonymous at 11:35 PM on Dec. 15, 2008

  • Luke 2:26-38 In verse 27 It Bible addresses Mary as a virgin... After her conversation with the angel, Mary's first response was..(verse 34) How can this be, seeing I know not a man? Meaning shw has never been with a man intimating. Verse 35 The Holy Ghost will come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing (scared, pure, blameless, sinless) which shall be called the Son of God. Miracleous!!! Mary was a virgin when she was born and a virgin after she gave birth. Yes, even beyond our human comphresion.

    Answer by heavenschild99 at 11:41 PM on Dec. 15, 2008

  • I've never believed in the "original sin" idea. I think ALL babies are born without sin. Why should a brand new baby be held accountable for something a far, far, far, far distant ancestor did?

    Answer by kaycee14 at 12:09 AM on Dec. 16, 2008

  • And in case you are wondering, Romans 5:12-21 is the main "support" in the Bible for "original sin" and it doesn't actually support it. It says that because Adam sinned, death entered the world and everyone will die because of it.

    Also, not all branches of Christianity believe in it.

    Answer by kaycee14 at 12:18 AM on Dec. 16, 2008

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