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why do people use such different inflections now then in the 30's and 40's ?

Posted by on Nov. 12, 2009 at 12:43 PM
  • 5 Replies

 why did they seem to emphasise the last syllable in every word?


headeraspergerwomanmetteksten-1.gif picture by rayzensun
by on Nov. 12, 2009 at 12:43 PM
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Replies (1-5):
chair.r13
by on Nov. 12, 2009 at 12:48 PM

Another grammer buff? I don't feel quite so alone lol

That's a good question. I have always wondered why inflections and pronunciations fluctuate as well. Something to look into I guess.

chair.r13
by on Nov. 12, 2009 at 12:50 PM

I forgot to add, my theary is ignorance. Uneducated people 70-80 years ago started saying things a certain way (incorrectly) and that became the norm.

greenie63
by on Nov. 12, 2009 at 12:51 PM

Do you mean the way my children put uhhhhhhhhhhhhh at the end? Ex : Mommy I don't wanna got beduuuuuuhhhhhhhh. Or I didn't do ituhhhhhhhhh. Whyuhhhhhh? Pleaseuhhh? Daduhhh.  When my children do this i talk exactly like them.

rayzensun
by on Nov. 12, 2009 at 1:55 PM

 bump....

should I reword the title?...


headeraspergerwomanmetteksten-1.gif picture by rayzensun
MelonballBounce
by on Nov. 12, 2009 at 1:58 PM

I don't know, speech just evolves I guess.

Have you seen the movie idiocracy? The future people make fun of that guy for sounding gay (ie, educated) b/c he talks the way we talk today?


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