Majority on CM and the law state that a person under the influence is incapable of consent and therefore and sexual relations would count as rape.
That being said what if both parties are inebriated at the time? Who's the victim? Who's the rapist? Where do we draw the line between buyers remorse and rape?
I'm going to add for those who have a hard time with reading comprehension. No where in the original post did I even allude to the Ohio case, because that is not what this post is about. This is a purely hypothetical question based on the laws surrounding inability to consent. I am not defending those boys actions nor am I saying they were victims too. If you want to freak out about that case please visit one of the hundred posts one this site dedicated to your cause!
on Mar. 18, 2013 at 3:24 PM