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Just a question because i am curios. I do not condone the sell or use of drugs.

If you sold drugs to someone and they overdose and die should you be charged with murder?

by on Jun. 12, 2009 at 9:50 AM
Replies (11-13):
canthaveboys1
by on Jun. 12, 2009 at 2:13 PM

 Hmmm good question. I have 2 stories. short and to the point.

First a guy I went to school with bought these underage girls beer and crap they get drunk wreck and they both die. 16 y/o girls. He got involuntary manslaughter and served time in prison, not to mention the other charges. He got 15 years.

Second this town I used to live in there was a confidential drug informant that was a junkie just got a slap on the hand if he helped the police. Goes to buy drugs, gets his cocain, it was laced they knew he was a ci for the police and laced it on purpose he died on the front porch of their house.

Yikes man, I dont know what people think honestly. You bring up a really good question and personally I thinkit should be considered but where would the line be drawn?

momandvet
by on Jun. 12, 2009 at 2:15 PM

The person who overdosed on the drug is responsible for what they but into their bodies. 

alyssamj24
by Member on Jun. 12, 2009 at 2:36 PM

i agree that the person who took the drugs and died should be the only one to blame.

that, and how are the police going to know who sold the person drugs? i know that some drug dealers are so well known by the cops that the cops could assume who sold the drugs, but i also know that some people who deal drugs(or use) are people that you would never think would do it......i think it would be too hard for the  police to find out who sold the person the drugs.

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